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Free Practice Questions for Sweden Pharmacist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för apotekare)

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Key Facts: Sweden Pharmacist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för apotekare) Exam

Free

The knowledge test for pharmacists costs nothing to take (Uppsala universitet)

Uppsala universitet

50 / 25 / 25

Pharmacist theory weighting: biosciences 50%, chemistry 25%, pharmacy 25%

Uppsala universitet

7 stations

Stations in the one-day practical test for pharmacists and receptarier

Uppsala universitet

5 / 3

Maximum attempts: five for the theoretical test, three for the practical test

Socialstyrelsen

5 years

Time from the first sitting to pass the whole knowledge test

Socialstyrelsen

SEK 990

Socialstyrelsen application fee to have the foreign education reviewed (step 1)

Socialstyrelsen

Kunskapsprov för apotekare is the free knowledge test run by Uppsala universitet for Socialstyrelsen. The theoretical test (Parts A–C, weighted biosciences 50%, chemistry 25%, pharmacy 25%) must be passed before the one-day, seven-station practical test, with up to five and three attempts within five years of the first sitting. The test is in Swedish; this 100-question bank is an English-language MCQ study adaptation, not an official translation or simulation of either test.

Sample Sweden Pharmacist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för apotekare) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the Sweden Pharmacist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för apotekare) exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old patient with asthma and hypertension requires a beta-blocker. Which beta-adrenoceptor antagonist is cardioselective (beta-1 selective) at therapeutic doses, minimizing the risk of bronchospasm compared to non-selective agents?
A.Propranolol
B.Sotalol
C.Metoprolol
D.Timolol
Explanation: Metoprolol is a cardioselective beta-1 adrenoceptor antagonist that preferentially blocks beta-1 receptors in cardiac tissue at therapeutic doses. In contrast, non-selective beta-blockers such as propranolol, timolol, and sotalol block both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors, which can precipitate bronchoconstriction in patients with reactive airway disease. Even with cardioselective agents, selectivity is dose-dependent and cautious monitoring is required in asthma.
2A 62-year-old patient treated with enalapril for hypertension develops a persistent, dry nocturnal cough without dyspnea or wheezing. What is the physiological mechanism responsible for this adverse effect?
A.Accumulation of bradykinin and substance P because ACE (kininase II) is inhibited
B.Direct stimulation of bronchial muscarinic M3 receptors by enalaprilat
C.Increased pulmonary vascular resistance secondary to angiotensin II depletion
D.Reflex bronchoconstriction mediated by sympathetic activation of alpha-1 receptors
Explanation: Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) is identical to kininase II, the principal enzyme responsible for degrading bradykinin and substance P into inactive peptide fragments. Inhibition of ACE leads to local tissue accumulation of bradykinin and substance P in the upper and lower respiratory tracts, sensitizing airway sensory C-fibers and triggering a persistent dry cough. Switching the patient to an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) such as losartan resolves the cough because ARBs do not inhibit kininase II.
3Which direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) functions as a direct competitive inhibitor of free and clot-bound factor IIa (thrombin), rather than factor Xa?
A.Rivaroxaban
B.Dabigatran
C.Apixaban
D.Edoxaban
Explanation: Dabigatran etexilate is an oral prodrug converted by serum and hepatic esterases into active dabigatran, a reversible, direct competitive inhibitor of both free and clot-bound thrombin (factor IIa). By directly binding the active catalytic site of thrombin, it prevents the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors, preventing prothrombinase complex activation.
4A patient stabilized on atorvastatin 40 mg daily requires systemic antifungal therapy with itraconazole. Why does this co-administration pose a serious pharmacological risk?
A.Itraconazole potently inhibits CYP3A4, increasing atorvastatin plasma exposure and elevating the risk of rhabdomyolysis
B.Itraconazole displaces atorvastatin from renal organic anion transporters, leading to acute tubular necrosis
C.Itraconazole induces CYP3A4, dramatically accelerating atorvastatin clearance and causing acute hypercholesterolemia
D.Atorvastatin inhibits fungal ergosterol synthesis, triggering paradoxical hepatic necrosis when combined with azoles
Explanation: Atorvastatin and simvastatin undergo extensive CYP3A4 metabolism. Itraconazole is a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor, so co-administration markedly increases atorvastatin exposure (AUC and peak concentration) and with it the risk of statin myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. The combination is best avoided: pause or limit the statin during the antifungal course, or use a statin that relies little on CYP3A4 (pravastatin or rosuvastatin).
5A patient with asthma is prescribed maintenance therapy with an inhaled corticosteroid (budesonide Turbuhaler). Why must the pharmacist advise the patient to rinse their mouth thoroughly with water and spit it out after each inhalation?
A.To prevent local immunosuppression that promotes oral candidiasis (torsk) and dysphonia
B.To prevent systemic absorption across the oral mucosa that could suppress the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis
C.To avoid dissolution of the dry powder carrier lactose, which causes dental enamel demineralization
D.To stimulate salivary flow and accelerate the conversion of budesonide to its active metabolites
Explanation: Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) deposit partly in the oropharynx during inhalation. Local deposition causes immunosuppression and anti-inflammatory effects in the oral mucosa, creating an environment favorable for opportunistic Candida albicans proliferation (oral candidiasis / torsk) and local myopathy of laryngeal muscles causing hoarseness (dysphonia). Rinsing the mouth with water and spitting it out removes residual drug particles from oral surfaces, drastically decreasing the incidence of candidiasis.
6What is the primary mechanism of action of SGLT2 inhibitors (such as dapagliflozin and empagliflozin) in managing type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A.Blocks sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 in the proximal tubule, causing glucosuria
B.Stimulation of incretin secretion by intestinal L-cells, promoting glucose-dependent insulin release
C.Competitive inhibition of alpha-glucosidase in the brush border of the small intestine
D.Selective activation of peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPAR-gamma) in adipocytes
Explanation: Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) is located in the S1/S2 segments of the proximal convoluted renal tubule, responsible for reabsorbing approximately 90% of filtered glucose. SGLT2 inhibitors block this transporter, lowering the renal threshold for glucose and promoting urinary excretion of glucose (glucosuria) and sodium. This results in reduced blood glucose, modest osmotic diuresis, weight loss, and reduced cardiovascular and renal mortality. A critical recognized complication is euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis (euDKA).
7Which pharmacological property distinguishes glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1 RAs, e.g., liraglutide, semaglutide) from sulfonylureas regarding hypoglycemia risk?
A.GLP-1 RAs stimulate glucagon secretion when blood glucose drops below 5.0 mmol/L
B.GLP-1 RAs act as pure insulin receptor sensitizers without altering pancreatic hormone secretion
C.GLP-1 RAs inhibit hepatic gluconeogenesis exclusively without affecting pancreatic beta-cell exocytosis
D.Their insulin-releasing effect is glucose-dependent and fades as glucose normalizes
Explanation: GLP-1 receptor agonists mimic endogenous incretin hormones by binding to GLP-1 receptors on pancreatic beta-cells, activating adenylyl cyclase and cAMP signaling. Crucially, this cascade requires elevated intracellular ATP from glucose metabolism; when blood glucose falls below physiological thresholds (~4-5 mmol/L), the insulinotropic stimulus ceases. Sulfonylureas, conversely, close ATP-sensitive potassium channels independently of ambient glucose concentrations, causing continuous insulin exocytosis and a high risk of severe hypoglycemia.
8According to the Swedish Medical Products Agency (Läkemedelsverket) and European safety alerts, what is the maximum recommended daily dose of citalopram in elderly patients (>65 years) due to dose-dependent QT-interval prolongation?
A.10 mg daily
B.20 mg daily
C.40 mg daily
D.60 mg daily
Explanation: Citalopram and escitalopram are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors associated with dose-dependent prolongation of the cardiac QT interval, posing a risk of torsades de pointes. Läkemedelsverket and EMA guidelines restrict the maximum daily dose of citalopram to 20 mg in patients over 65 years of age (and in those with hepatic impairment), down from the standard adult maximum of 40 mg daily. For escitalopram, the maximum dose in the elderly is 10 mg daily.
9Which molecular target is allosterically modulated by benzodiazepines (such as diazepam and oxazepam) to produce their sedative, anxiolytic, and anticonvulsant effects?
A.GABA-A receptor chloride ion channel complexes
B.Voltage-gated sodium channels in the cerebral cortex
C.GABA-B metabotropic G-protein coupled receptors
D.Presynaptic 5-HT1A somatodendritic autoreceptors
Explanation: Benzodiazepines bind to a specific allosteric site at the interface of alpha and gamma subunits on the ionotropic GABA-A receptor complex. This binding increases the frequency of chloride channel opening in response to gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), leading to membrane hyperpolarization and general neuronal inhibition. Unlike barbiturates, benzodiazepines do not increase channel opening duration or open the channel directly in the absence of GABA, explaining their wider therapeutic margin.
10A patient with refractory schizophrenia treated with clozapine presents with a fever, sore throat, and lethargy. What life-threatening adverse hematological reaction must be investigated immediately with an urgent complete blood count?
A.Polycythemia vera
B.Hemolytic uremic syndrome
C.Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
D.Agranulocytosis
Explanation: Clozapine can induce life-threatening agranulocytosis (absolute neutrophil count < 0.5 x 10^9/L) in approximately 0.8–1% of patients, occurring most frequently within the first 18 weeks of therapy. In Sweden, regular mandatory hematological monitoring is enforced: weekly for the first 18 weeks, then monthly thereafter throughout therapy. Any signs of infection (such as fever, chills, sore throat) necessitate immediate blood sampling and cessation of clozapine if neutropenia is confirmed.

About the Sweden Pharmacist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för apotekare) Exam

Kunskapsprov för apotekare is Socialstyrelsen's knowledge test for pharmacists educated outside the EU/EEA who want a Swedish pharmacist licence (apotekarlegitimation). Uppsala universitet runs it in Uppsala: a computer-based theoretical test with multiple-choice parts in biosciences, chemistry and pharmacy plus questions on an English scientific article, followed by a one-day practical test with seven stations. This page offers independent English-language practice for the knowledge areas the test covers.

Exam sponsor: Uppsala universitet on behalf of Socialstyrelsen (National Board of Health and Welfare). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Theoretical test (one day, on computer in Uppsala): Part A factual multiple-choice, Part B applied multiple-choice, Part C scientific article; pharmacist weighting biosciences 50% / chemistry 25% / pharmacy 25%. Practical test (one day): seven stations.

Time Limit

Theoretical test: one day; practical test: one day

Passing Score

All moments of each test must be passed at the same sitting; no overall percentage is published

Exam / Certification Fees

Free (SEK 990 Socialstyrelsen application fee for the earlier education review)

Exam sponsor website

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

50% of the official theory test; 45 practice questions

Pharmaceutical biosciences (biovetenskap)

Pharmacology, pharmacokinetics, pharmacotherapy, toxicology, physiology, biochemistry, microbiology and immunology, including Janusmed interaction grading.

25% of the official theory test; 23 practice questions

Chemistry (kemi)

General, organic, medicinal and analytical chemistry and pharmacognosy, including ionization, lipophilicity, structure–activity relationships, degradation and analytical methods.

25% of the official theory test; 32 practice questions

Pharmacy (farmaci) and Swedish pharmacy practice

Galenic pharmacy, biopharmaceutics, sterilization and bioequivalence, plus Swedish rules on prescriptions (HSLF-FS 2021:75), generic substitution, the National Medication List, licence medicines and pharmacovigilance.

Preparing for the Sweden Pharmacist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för apotekare) Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: All moments of each test must be passed at the same sitting; no overall percentage is published
  • Assessment: Theoretical test (one day, on computer in Uppsala): Part A factual multiple-choice, Part B applied multiple-choice, Part C scientific article; pharmacist weighting biosciences 50% / chemistry 25% / pharmacy 25%. Practical test (one day): seven stations.
  • Time limit: Theoretical test: one day; practical test: one day
  • Exam / certification fees: Free (SEK 990 Socialstyrelsen application fee for the earlier education review) Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Sweden Pharmacist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för apotekare): Suggested Study Strategy

1Weight your study like the theory test: half on pharmaceutical biosciences (pharmacology, pharmacokinetics, physiology, microbiology), a quarter each on chemistry and pharmacy.
2Work through the previous tests that Uppsala universitet publishes for pharmacists; Parts A and B are multiple-choice, and Part C trains you to read an English scientific article.
3Drill pharmacokinetic calculations: k = 0.693/t½, Vd = Dose/C0, CL = Dose/AUC, Css = F × Dose/(CL × τ) and loading doses corrected for bioavailability.
4Learn to read Janusmed codes: the letter A–D is clinical significance (D = avoid the combination) and the number 0–4 is the documentation grade.
5For the practical stations, practise counselling in Swedish and searching FASS and Janusmed under time pressure.
6Know the Swedish dispensing rules in HSLF-FS 2021:75, including prescription validity, expedieringshinder and identity checks for särskilda läkemedel.

Frequently Asked Questions

Who runs the Kunskapsprov för apotekare?

Uppsala universitet runs the knowledge test nationally on behalf of Socialstyrelsen. You can register once Socialstyrelsen has reviewed your foreign pharmacist education and decided that you may take the test.

How is the test structured?

The theoretical test is taken on a computer in Uppsala and has Part A (factual multiple-choice), Part B (applied multiple-choice) and Part C (questions on an English scientific article). Each moment must be passed at the same sitting. After passing it you take a one-day practical test with seven stations, such as FASS and Janusmed searches, counselling, interprofessional communication and a laboratory skill.

How is the theoretical test weighted for pharmacists?

Uppsala universitet states that the pharmacist test is weighted biosciences 50%, chemistry 25% and pharmacy 25%. The receptarie test uses a different weighting (60/20/20).

How many attempts do I get, and what does it cost?

You have five attempts at the theoretical test and three at the practical test, and the whole test must be passed within five years of your first sitting. The test itself is free; Socialstyrelsen charges SEK 990 when you apply to have your education reviewed, and you pay your own travel and accommodation.

Is the test available in English?

No. The test is in Swedish, although Part C uses a scientific article in English with questions in Swedish. This practice bank is an English-language multiple-choice study adaptation: it helps you review the knowledge areas but is not an official translation and does not simulate the Swedish test or its practical stations.

What happens after I pass?

Uppsala universitet reports the result to Socialstyrelsen. The next steps on Socialstyrelsen's route are a course in Swedish health and medicines legislation, a period of practical service and finally the application for a Swedish licence.