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Norway ATPL Theory Examination (Luftfartstilsynet)

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Norway PPL Theory Examination (Luftfartstilsynet)

Practice Questions100 questions

Exam Review

Key Facts: Norway CPL Theory Exam

Exam Subjects

EASA Part-FCL.310

75%

Pass Mark per Subject

EASA Part-FCL.025

36 mos

Theory Validity

EASA Part-FCL.025

18 mos

Sitting Window

EASA Part-FCL.025

NOK 960

Fee per Subject Attempt

BSL A 1-2

English

Official Delivery Language

Luftfartstilsynet

Luftfartstilsynet administers 13 CPL(A) electronic multiple-choice subject papers available in English, totaling 481 questions with a 75% pass mark per paper. Area 100 KSA is assessed separately by the ATO. This is independent English-language MCQ practice, not an official exam simulation or a substitute for required training and skill testing.

Sample Norway CPL Theory Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the Norway CPL Theory exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under EASA Part-SERA / Part-FCL airspace classification rules, what are the minimum flight visibility and distance from cloud requirements for a VFR flight operating in Class C airspace at or above 3000 ft AMSL (or 1000 ft above terrain, whichever is higher)?

A.5 km flight visibility (8 km at or above FL100), 1500 m horizontal clearance, and 1000 ft (300 m) vertical clearance from clouds

B.8 km flight visibility, 2000 m horizontal clearance, and 1500 ft vertical clearance from clouds

C.5 km flight visibility, 1000 m horizontal clearance, and 500 ft vertical clearance from clouds

D.3 km flight visibility, clear of clouds, and in continual visual reference to the surface

Explanation: Under SERA.5001 (VMC visibility and distance from cloud minima), VFR flights at or above 3000 ft AMSL or 1000 ft above terrain in airspace classes A through G must maintain 1500 m horizontal clearance and 1000 ft (300 m) vertical clearance from clouds, with at least 5 km flight visibility below FL100 (and 8 km at or above FL100).

2According to SERA.5005, what is the minimum height permitted for a VFR flight over the congested areas of cities, towns, or settlements, or over an open-air assembly of persons?

A.1000 ft (300 m) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft

B.500 ft (150 m) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 500 m from the aircraft

C.1500 ft (450 m) above ground level regardless of obstacle proximity

D.2000 ft (600 m) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 1000 m from the aircraft

Explanation: SERA.5005(f)(1) establishes that over congested areas of cities, towns, or settlements, or over an open-air assembly of persons, a VFR flight shall not be flown at a height less than 300 m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft, except when necessary for take-off or landing.

3After receiving a CPDLC clearance that the crew can comply with, which response communicates both receipt and intention to comply?

A.WILCO

B.ROGER

C.STANDBY

D.UNABLE

Explanation: WILCO means that the message has been understood and will be complied with. In CPDLC, the permitted response set is tied to the uplink, so the crew must select the response that accurately states its ability and intent.

4In accordance with EASA Part-FCL.060 (Recent experience), what are the minimum currency requirements for a commercial pilot to carry passengers as Pilot-in-Command (PIC)?

A.At least 3 take-offs, approaches, and landings carried out as PIC or co-pilot on an aircraft of the same type/class or an approved FSTD within the preceding 90 days

B.At least 5 take-offs and landings within the preceding 60 days on any aircraft class

C.At least 3 instrument approaches and 1 hour of flight time within the preceding 30 days

D.A completed annual proficiency check with an examiner within the preceding 12 calendar months

Explanation: Part-FCL.060(b)(1) states that a pilot shall not operate an aircraft in commercial air transport or carry passengers as PIC or co-pilot unless they have carried out at least 3 take-offs, approaches, and landings to a full stop or touch-and-go in an aircraft of the same type/class or FSTD representing that type/class within the preceding 90 days.

5During an international flight, an aircraft is intercepted by a military interceptor. The intercepting aircraft positions itself slightly ahead and to the left, rocks its wings, and after acknowledgement, initiates a slow level turn to the left. According to ICAO Annex 2, what does this signal indicate?

A.'You have been intercepted. Follow me.'

B.'You are clear to proceed along your filed flight plan route.'

C.'Descend immediately and land at the nearest available aerodrome.'

D.'Your transponder is malfunctioning; squawk 7600 immediately.'

Explanation: Under ICAO Annex 2 (Rules of the Air, Appendix 2), an interceptor rocking aircraft wings from a position in front and to the left of the intercepted aircraft, followed by a slow level turn, signifies: 'You have been intercepted. Follow me.' The intercepted aircraft must acknowledge by rocking its wings and following.

6What is the air traffic service separation standard provided to VFR flights operating in Class D controlled airspace under ICAO / SERA rules?

A.IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information regarding VFR flights; VFR flights receive traffic information regarding all flights

B.VFR flights are separated from both IFR and all other VFR flights by ATC

C.VFR flights receive positive separation from IFR flights, but not from other VFR flights

D.No separation is provided to any flight in Class D airspace; only flight information service is provided

Explanation: In Class D airspace: IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights (IFR and VFR), but are not separated from IFR flights or each other.

7Under SERA.5010, what are the meteorological conditions and requirements for an air traffic control unit to issue a Special VFR clearance to an aircraft operating within a control zone?

A.Ground visibility not less than 1500 m (or 800 m for helicopters), ceiling not less than 600 ft (180 m), clear of clouds, and with the surface in continual sight

B.Ground visibility not less than 3000 m, ceiling not less than 1000 ft, and horizontal cloud separation of at least 1500 m

C.Flight visibility not less than 5 km, ceiling not less than 1500 ft, and operating under IFR flight plan rules

D.Ground visibility not less than 800 m, clear of clouds, with no restriction on cloud ceiling

Explanation: Under SERA.5010, Special VFR flights may be authorized to enter or leave a control zone when ground visibility is not less than 1500 m (800 m for helicopters) and the cloud ceiling is not less than 600 ft (180 m). The pilot must remain clear of clouds and with the surface in sight at an indicated airspeed of 140 kt or less.

8According to ICAO Annex 11 and SERA, what does the air traffic services emergency code squawk '7600' communicate to ground controllers via secondary surveillance radar (SSR)?

A.Radio communication failure

B.Unlawful interference (hijack)

C.General emergency condition

D.Special military intercept in progress

Explanation: SSR Mode A transponder code 7600 signifies radio communications failure (loss of two-way radio communication). Code 7500 indicates unlawful interference (hijack), and code 7700 denotes a general state of emergency.

9In an aircraft hydraulic system, what is the primary operational purpose of a hydraulic accumulator pre-charged with dry nitrogen gas?

A.To store fluid under pressure to damp pressure surges, supplement the hydraulic pump during peak demand, and supply emergency hydraulic pressure

B.To continuously filter microscopic particulate matter and separate trapped air from hydraulic fluid

C.To cool the hydraulic fluid by exchanging heat directly with ambient air in the wheel well

D.To convert hydraulic pressure directly into pneumatic power for de-icing boot expansion

Explanation: A hydraulic accumulator consists of a chamber divided by a piston, bladder, or diaphragm separating dry nitrogen from hydraulic fluid. It stores hydraulic energy under pressure, dampens pressure fluctuations and pump pulsation, supplements pump output during brief high-demand operations (such as gear retraction), and provides emergency pressure if the engine-driven pump fails.

10How does an oleo-pneumatic landing gear strut absorb the kinetic energy of landing and damp subsequent rebound oscillations?

A.Compression of nitrogen gas absorbs the initial impact shock, while metered oil forced through an orifice dissipates energy and damps rebound

B.Hydraulic oil compresses to absorb the impact energy, while expanding nitrogen gas prevents rebound oscillation

C.Mechanical steel coil springs absorb the touchdown energy, while nitrogen gas provides shock absorption during taxiing

D.Elastomeric rubber disks absorb the vertical energy, and hydraulic return valves prevent gear extension

Explanation: In an oleo-pneumatic strut, the compression of nitrogen gas acts as a spring to absorb initial landing shock, while hydraulic fluid (oil) forced through a calibrated metering orifice (often controlled by a tapered metering pin) dissipates energy through friction, preventing oscillatory rebound.

About the Norway CPL Theory Exam

The Norwegian Commercial Pilot Licence (CPL) theoretical knowledge examinations are administered by Luftfartstilsynet under EASA Part-FCL (FCL.310) and BSL C 1-1. The authority examination has 13 electronic multiple-choice subject papers available in English. Candidates must pass every paper at 75% within the Part-FCL attempt, sitting, and 18-month limits. The subject papers cover Air Law; Aircraft General Knowledge for airframes, systems, powerplant, and instrumentation; Mass and Balance; Performance; Flight Planning and Monitoring; Human Performance; Meteorology; General and Radio Navigation; Operational Procedures; Principles of Flight; and Communications. The professional theory course also integrates Area 100 KSA, including ATO summative assessments and a mental-maths test before recommendation for the final authority paper. CPL(A) issuance separately requires the applicable flight experience, medical qualification, and practical skill test. This independent OpenExamPrep bank supports theory study; it is not an official examination or a substitute for ATO assessment, flight training, or the skill test.

Exam sponsor: Civil Aviation Authority of Norway (Luftfartstilsynet). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

13 modular electronic multiple-choice examinations: Air Law (010), AGK Airframes/Systems (021), AGK Instrumentation (022), Mass and Balance (031), Performance (032), Flight Planning and Monitoring (033), Human Performance (040), Meteorology (050), General Navigation (061), Radio Navigation (062), Operational Procedures (070), Principles of Flight (081), and Communications (090).

Time Limit

Varies by CPL(A) subject paper from 30 minutes to 2 hours under AMC1 ARA.FCL.300(b)

Passing Score

75% in each of the 13 modular subjects within an 18-month window under EASA Part-FCL.025

Exam / Certification Fees

NOK 960 per subject attempt under the 2026 BSL A 1-2 fee regulation, invoiced by Luftfartstilsynet after the examination

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

Air Law

BSL regulations, EASA Part-FCL, Part-NCO/Part-SPO, ICAO Annexes, international conventions, commercial flight rules, and airspace classifications.

13%

Aircraft General Knowledge: Airframe and Systems

Aircraft structures, hydraulic systems, landing gear, electrical distribution, piston and turbine engines, fuel systems, and environmental controls.

Aircraft General Knowledge: Instrumentation

Pressure instruments, gyroscopic flight instruments, magnetic compass systems, EFIS, FMS, autopilot, and engine instrumentation.

Mass and Balance

Mass definitions, center of gravity limits, datum, moment calculations, loading manifests, and CG movement during fuel consumption.

Performance

Single-engine and multi-engine aeroplane performance, take-off and landing distances, climb performance, drift down, and cruise economy.

Flight Planning and Monitoring

VFR and IFR navigation logs, fuel policy and reserve requirements, alternate selection, NOTAMs, and ATC flight plan filing.

Human Performance and Limitations

Aviation physiology, high-altitude considerations, spatial disorientation, sleep and fatigue, crew resource management (CRM), and threat and error management (TEM).

13%

Meteorology

Atmospheric dynamics, pressure systems, jet streams, icing and turbulence, fog types, frontal structures, SIGMET/AIRMET, and TAF/METAR analysis.

General Navigation

Earth geometry, aeronautical charts, converging lines, time calculations, drift, dead reckoning, and flight computer calculations.

Radio Navigation

Propagation theory, VOR, DME, NDB/ADF, ILS, GNSS/GPS fundamentals, RNAV, and radar principles.

Operational Procedures

ICAO Annex 6, special operations, wake turbulence, windshear, contaminated runway operations, and emergency equipment procedures.

Principles of Flight

Subsonic aerodynamics, lift and drag curves, stalling and spinning, high-lift devices, stability, control surfaces, and propeller aerodynamics.

Communications

VFR communications, standard phraseology, distress/urgency messages, communication failure procedures, and VHF propagation.

Preparing for the Norway CPL Theory Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: 75% in each of the 13 modular subjects within an 18-month window under EASA Part-FCL.025
Assessment: 13 modular electronic multiple-choice examinations: Air Law (010), AGK Airframes/Systems (021), AGK Instrumentation (022), Mass and Balance (031), Performance (032), Flight Planning and Monitoring (033), Human Performance (040), Meteorology (050), General Navigation (061), Radio Navigation (062), Operational Procedures (070), Principles of Flight (081), and Communications (090).
Time limit: Varies by CPL(A) subject paper from 30 minutes to 2 hours under AMC1 ARA.FCL.300(b)
Exam / certification fees: NOK 960 per subject attempt under the 2026 BSL A 1-2 fee regulation, invoiced by Luftfartstilsynet after the examination Official sources

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Norway CPL Theory: Suggested Study Strategy

1Master general navigation formulas: Convergency = Change of Longitude × sin(Parallel of Origin); Conversion Angle = 1/2 × Convergency.

2Understand asymmetric thrust and multi-engine aerodynamics: Vmca increases with aft center of gravity, higher gross weight, and higher air density.

3Practice mass and balance moment adjustments: Shift Weight = (Total Weight × CG Shift) / Distance Moved.

4Drill radio navigation tracking: Relative Bearing + Magnetic Heading = Magnetic Bearing TO the station.

5Memorize EASA fuel planning requirements: Taxi fuel, trip fuel, contingency fuel (minimum 5% of trip fuel or 5 minutes holding), alternate fuel, and final reserve fuel (30 minutes for piston, 45 minutes for turbine).

6Understand high-altitude physiology: The time of useful consciousness (TUC) at FL250 is approximately 3 to 5 minutes, decreasing to 30 to 60 seconds at FL350.

7Study frontal weather and cloud types: Cold fronts typically feature steep slope (1:50 to 1:100), narrow band of cumuliform clouds, and rapid wind shifts, whereas warm fronts feature gradual slope (1:150 to 1:200) and stratiform cloud layers.

8Review commercial operating rules: Understand duty periods, rest requirements, and minimum equipment list (MEL) procedures under Part-NCO and Part-SPO.

9Know hydroplaning speed formulas: Dynamic hydroplaning speed (knots) = 9 × √(tire pressure in psi) for rotating wheels, and 7.7 × √(tire pressure in psi) for non-rotating wheels.

10Master high-lift devices and control surface aerodynamics: Flaps increase the maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and reduce stalling speed, but also increase induced and parasite drag.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the Norwegian CPL Theory Examination?

The Norwegian CPL Theory Examination is the official commercial theoretical assessment administered by Luftfartstilsynet under EASA Part-FCL.310, testing candidates across 13 aeronautical knowledge subjects.

How many subjects are included in the CPL theoretical examination?

The CPL theoretical examination consists of 13 subjects: Air Law, AGK Systems, AGK Instruments, Mass & Balance, Performance, Flight Planning, Human Performance, Meteorology, General Navigation, Radio Navigation, Operational Procedures, Principles of Flight, and Communications.

What is the passing score for the CPL theory exam?

A candidate must achieve at least 75% in each of the 13 individual subject examinations to pass.

In what language is the Norwegian CPL theory examination conducted?

The commercial pilot theoretical knowledge examinations in Norway are delivered in English.

How long is a CPL theoretical knowledge pass valid in Norway?

Under EASA Part-FCL.025, a pass in the CPL theoretical knowledge examinations is valid for 36 months from the date of passing the last subject to the practical skill test.

How do candidates register for the CPL theory exam?

Candidates must be registered through an Approved Training Organisation (ATO) using Luftfartstilsynet form NF-1139, submitted at least 6 weeks prior to the desired initial examination sitting.

What happens if a candidate fails a subject exam?

A candidate is allowed up to 4 attempts per subject within a total of 6 sittings and an overall 18-month window from the first sitting.

How much does the Norwegian CPL theory examination cost?

The 2026 BSL A 1-2 fee is NOK 960 per subject attempt, invoiced by Luftfartstilsynet after the examination.