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Norway CPL Theory Examination (Luftfartstilsynet)

Practice Questions100 questions

Norway PPL Theory Examination (Luftfartstilsynet)

Practice Questions100 questions

Exam Review

Key Facts: Norway ATPL Theory Exam

Exam Subjects

EASA Part-FCL.515

75%

Pass Mark per Subject

EASA Part-FCL.025

36 mos

Validity for CPL/IR

EASA Part-FCL.025

7 yrs

ATPL Theory Acceptance

EASA Part-FCL.025

NOK 960

Fee per Subject Attempt

BSL A 1-2

English

Official Language

Luftfartstilsynet

Luftfartstilsynet administers 13 ATPL(A) electronic multiple-choice subject papers available in English, totaling 671 questions with a 75% pass mark per paper. Area 100 KSA is assessed separately by the ATO. This is independent English-language MCQ practice, not an official exam simulation or a substitute for required training and skill testing.

Sample Norway ATPL Theory Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the Norway ATPL Theory exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under Article 1 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation (Chicago Convention, 1944), what fundamental principle of international public air law is recognized by all contracting states?

A.Every contracting State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory

B.Airspace above 10,000 ft AMSL is designated as common international heritage open to all civil aircraft without restriction

C.All contracting States grant automatic, unrestricted cabotage rights to commercial scheduled air carriers of member states

D.International air traffic control over territorial waters is vested exclusively in the United Nations Security Council

Explanation: Article 1 of the Chicago Convention establishes that 'The contracting States recognize that every State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory.' Territory is defined under Article 2 as the land areas and adjacent territorial waters under the sovereignty, suzerainty, protection, or mandate of such State.

2Under the Montreal Convention of 1999 (which modernized the Warsaw system), how is air carrier liability structured for passenger bodily injury or death resulting from an international commercial aviation accident?

A.A two-tier liability regime: strict liability (no-fault) up to a specified Special Drawing Right (SDR) limit, above which the carrier is subject to unlimited liability unless it proves absence of negligence

B.A strict financial cap of 10,000 SDRs beyond which no compensatory damages can ever be recovered

C.Carrier liability requires proof of intentional misconduct by the flight crew in all cases

D.Passengers must purchase private insurance because commercial carriers enjoy sovereign immunity on international flights

Explanation: The Montreal Convention of 1999 established a two-tier liability system for passenger bodily injury or death. The first tier imposes strict liability without fault up to an SDR limit that ICAO reviews periodically. Above the current limit, liability is not capped, but the carrier may avoid the excess portion by proving that the damage was not due to its negligence or was solely due to a third party.

3In accordance with EASA Air Operations (Part-CAT) Flight Time Limitations (ORO.FTL.210), what is the maximum cumulative flight time permitted for a commercial airline pilot?

A.100 hours in any 28 consecutive days, 900 flight hours in any calendar year, and 1000 flight hours in any 12 consecutive calendar months

B.60 hours in any 7 consecutive days and 500 hours in any calendar year

C.120 hours in any 30 consecutive days and 1200 hours in any 12 consecutive months

D.80 hours in any 14 consecutive days and 800 hours in any calendar year

Explanation: Under EASA ORO.FTL.210(b), the total flight time assigned to a crew member shall not exceed: (1) 100 hours in any 28 consecutive days; (2) 900 hours in any calendar year; and (3) 1000 hours in any 12 consecutive calendar months.

4In an airline's Minimum Equipment List (MEL) approved under EASA Part-CAT, what is the maximum permitted rectification interval for an inoperative item classified under Category B?

A.3 consecutive calendar days (72 hours), excluding the day of discovery

B.10 consecutive calendar days (240 hours), excluding the day of discovery

C.120 consecutive calendar days, excluding the day of discovery

D.No standard time limit; rectification is required prior to the next scheduled maintenance C-check

Explanation: Standard EASA/FAA MEL rectification categories (excluding the calendar day on which the defect was recorded) are: Category A: No standard interval (specified in remarks); Category B: 3 consecutive calendar days (72 hours); Category C: 10 consecutive calendar days (240 hours); Category D: 120 consecutive calendar days.

5According to ICAO Annex 13 (Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation), which event must be classified as an 'Accident' rather than a 'Serious Incident'?

A.A person suffers fatal or serious injury as a result of being in the aircraft, or the aircraft sustains structural damage affecting strength or performance requiring major repair

B.A near-collision requiring an evasive maneuver to avoid a collision (Airprox Category A)

C.A rejected take-off on a closed or occupied runway where no structural damage occurs

D.An in-flight engine shutdown on a four-engine commercial transport jet that lands safely

Explanation: ICAO Annex 13 defines an Accident as an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft where a person is fatally or seriously injured, or the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft, or the aircraft is missing or completely inaccessible. Near-collisions and runway incidents without damage are Serious Incidents.

6What mandatory aircraft equipment is required under EASA Part-SPA.RVSM for an aircraft to be approved for flight within Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace between FL290 and FL410?

A.Two independent primary altimetry systems, one automatic altitude-control system, one altitude-alerting system, and an SSR altitude-reporting transponder

B.A dual inertial reference system and head-up display system

C.Three separate GPS receivers and an automatic emergency descent system

D.A forward-looking windshear radar and microwave landing receiver

Explanation: To qualify for RVSM operations (1000 ft vertical separation between FL290 and FL410), an aircraft must be equipped with: (1) Two independent primary altimetry systems; (2) One automatic altitude-control system (autopilot altitude hold); (3) One altitude-alerting system; and (4) One SSR Mode C or Mode S transponder connected to the altitude measurement system.

7During steady flight, what is the initial effect of commanding a transport aircraft's pressurization outflow valve toward the closed position while inflow remains constant?

A.Cabin pressure decreases, cabin altitude rises, and differential pressure falls

B.Cabin pressure increases, cabin altitude descends, and differential pressure rises

C.Cabin pressure and cabin altitude remain unchanged because only inflow controls them

D.Cabin pressure immediately equals outside pressure

Explanation: Closing the outflow valve reduces the mass of air leaving the pressure vessel. With inflow unchanged, cabin pressure increases, the indicated cabin altitude decreases, and the pressure difference between the cabin and ambient air increases until the controller stabilizes the system or a limit is reached.

8Which EASA Part-SPA (Specific Approvals) authorization is required for an airline to operate a twin-engine commercial transport jet on a route containing a point farther from an adequate aerodrome than the threshold turn-around distance (typically 60 minutes at one-engine-inoperative cruise speed)?

A.Extended Diversion Time Operations (EDTO / ETOPS) approval

B.Low Visibility Operations (LVO) Cat III approval

C.Steep Approach and Short Take-off operations approval

D.Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) approval

Explanation: Under EASA Part-SPA.ETOPS (Extended Range Operations with Two-Engine Aeroplanes) and ICAO EDTO standards, any operation by a twin-engine aeroplane beyond 60 minutes flying time from an adequate aerodrome at one-engine-inoperative cruise speed in still air requires a specific ETOPS/EDTO airworthiness and operational approval.

9In a modern high-bypass turbofan engine, why does increasing the bypass ratio (BPR) increase propulsive efficiency (η_p) and reduce specific fuel consumption?

A.Propulsive efficiency increases because a larger mass of air is accelerated to a smaller change in velocity (V_j - V_0), minimizing lost kinetic energy in the exhaust wake

B.High bypass engines increase the core turbine inlet temperature to 3000°C, increasing Carnot thermal efficiency

C.Bypass air eliminates all parasite drag created by the engine nacelle cowling

D.The fan compresses air supersonically into the combustion chambers without requiring high-pressure compressors

Explanation: Propulsive efficiency is given by η_p = 2 / (1 + V_j / V_0), where V_j is jet exhaust velocity and V_0 is flight speed. Kinetic energy wasted in the wake is proportional to (V_j - V_0)². By moving a very large mass flow of air through the bypass duct at a relatively low exit velocity, thrust (Thrust = mass × ΔV) is generated with minimal kinetic energy waste, maximizing propulsive efficiency and reducing specific fuel consumption.

10What is the aerodynamic difference between a compressor blade stall and a complete compressor surge in an axial-flow gas turbine engine?

A.A compressor stall is separated flow affecting part of the compressor, whereas surge is an unstable whole-compressor oscillation that can include momentary flow reversal

B.A stall occurs only in the turbine stages, whereas a surge occurs exclusively in the fan bypass duct

C.A surge causes the engine to freeze mechanically, whereas a stall increases engine RPM above redline

D.A compressor stall causes instantaneous engine fire, whereas a surge causes uncommanded flameout without noise

Explanation: A compressor stall is local flow separation on one or more blade rows and may propagate circumferentially as rotating stall. Surge is instability of the compressor system as a whole, with large pressure and mass-flow oscillations and possible brief flow reversal. Either condition can cause bangs, vibration and abnormal engine indications.

About the Norway ATPL Theory Exam

The Norwegian Airline Transport Pilot Licence (ATPL) theoretical knowledge examinations are administered by Luftfartstilsynet under EASA Part-FCL (FCL.515) and Norwegian regulation BSL C 1-1. The authority examination has 13 electronic multiple-choice subject papers available in English. Candidates must pass every paper at 75% within the Part-FCL attempt, sitting, and 18-month limits. The subject papers cover Air Law; Aircraft General Knowledge for airframes, systems, powerplant, and instrumentation; Mass and Balance; Performance; Flight Planning and Monitoring; Human Performance; Meteorology; General and Radio Navigation; Operational Procedures; Principles of Flight; and Communications. The professional theory course also integrates Area 100 Knowledge, Skills and Attitudes. Its summative assessments and mental-maths test are conducted by the ATO before recommendation for the final authority paper, rather than as an extra Luftfartstilsynet exam. Final ATPL(A) issuance separately requires the applicable flight experience, type rating, medical qualification, and practical skill test. This independent OpenExamPrep bank supports theory study; it is not an official examination or a substitute for ATO assessment, flight training, or the skill test.

Exam sponsor: Civil Aviation Authority of Norway (Luftfartstilsynet). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

13 electronic multiple-choice subject papers: Air Law (010), AGK Airframe/Systems/Powerplant (021), AGK Instrumentation (022), Mass and Balance (031), Performance (032), Flight Planning and Monitoring (033), Human Performance (040), Meteorology (050), General Navigation (061), Radio Navigation (062), Operational Procedures (070), Principles of Flight (081), and Communications (090). Area 100 KSA summative assessments and a mental-maths test are completed at the ATO before the final authority paper; they are not a fourteenth paper.

Time Limit

Varies by ATPL(A) subject paper from 1 hour to 2 hours 15 minutes under AMC1 ARA.FCL.300(b)

Passing Score

75% in each of the 13 subject papers within an 18-month window under EASA Part-FCL.025

Exam / Certification Fees

NOK 960 per subject attempt under the 2026 BSL A 1-2 fee regulation, invoiced by Luftfartstilsynet after the examination

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

Air Law

Chicago Convention, ICAO Annexes, EASA Air Operations (Part-CAT, Part-SPA), airspace classification, air traffic management, accident investigation, and international conventions.

12%

Aircraft General Knowledge: Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

Fuselage and wing structures, hydraulic systems, flight controls (fly-by-wire), modern turbofan and turboprop engines, pneumatic systems, fuel systems, and fire protection.

Aircraft General Knowledge: Instrumentation

Glass cockpit systems, EFIS, FMS, TCAS, GPWS/EGPWS, HUD, flight director, automatic flight control systems, and electronic engine displays (EICAS/ECAM).

Mass and Balance

Mass definitions for commercial transport aeroplanes, traffic load, zero fuel mass, structural limits, load sheets, trim charts, and MAC percentage calculations.

Performance (Aeroplanes)

Commercial air transport performance Class A (multi-engine turbofan/turboprop), balanced field length, V1, Vr, V2, climb gradients, obstacle clearance, and landing performance.

Flight Planning and Monitoring

Long-range flight planning, ICAO flight plan filing, jet fuel policy, point of equal time (PET), point of safe return (PSR), ETOPS/EDTO, and North Atlantic track procedures.

Human Performance and Limitations

High-altitude physiology, decompression, circadian dysrhythmia (jet lag), automation complacency, multi-crew CRM, decision-making, and organizational error management.

12%

Meteorology

Upper atmospheric circulation, jet streams, clear air turbulence (CAT), tropical cyclones, icing hazards, volcanic ash, SIGMET, high-level significant weather charts, and TAF/METAR.

General Navigation

Earth geometry, great circle and rhumb line routes, polar navigation, convergence, grid navigation, and inertial reference systems (IRS/INS).

10%

Radio Navigation

Modern radio navigation aids, DME/DME updating, GNSS augmentation (SBAS, GBAS), performance-based navigation (PBN), RNP/RNAV specifications, and weather radar.

Operational Procedures

Commercial air transport operations (Part-CAT), all-weather operations (Cat I, II, III ILS), low-visibility procedures, wake vortex mitigation, contaminated runway operations, and cabin emergency management.

Principles of Flight

Transonic and supersonic aerodynamics, critical Mach number, shockwave formation, wave drag, swept-wing characteristics, Mach tuck, buffet boundary, and high-altitude cruise.

Communications

VFR and IFR radiotelephony, CPDLC, SELCAL, emergency distress and urgency communications, and lost communications in complex airspace.

Preparing for the Norway ATPL Theory Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: 75% in each of the 13 subject papers within an 18-month window under EASA Part-FCL.025
Assessment: 13 electronic multiple-choice subject papers: Air Law (010), AGK Airframe/Systems/Powerplant (021), AGK Instrumentation (022), Mass and Balance (031), Performance (032), Flight Planning and Monitoring (033), Human Performance (040), Meteorology (050), General Navigation (061), Radio Navigation (062), Operational Procedures (070), Principles of Flight (081), and Communications (090). Area 100 KSA summative assessments and a mental-maths test are completed at the ATO before the final authority paper; they are not a fourteenth paper.
Time limit: Varies by ATPL(A) subject paper from 1 hour to 2 hours 15 minutes under AMC1 ARA.FCL.300(b)
Exam / certification fees: NOK 960 per subject attempt under the 2026 BSL A 1-2 fee regulation, invoiced by Luftfartstilsynet after the examination Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

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Norway ATPL Theory: Suggested Study Strategy

1Master transonic aerodynamics and shock stall: Critical Mach number (Mcrit) is the free-stream Mach number at which airflow reaches Mach 1.0 at some point on the aircraft surface; flying beyond Mcrit produces shock waves, wave drag, and Mach tuck.

2Understand Class A performance definitions: V1 is the takeoff decision speed, Vr is the rotation speed, and V2 is the takeoff safety speed (must be reached by the 35 ft screen height with one engine inoperative).

3Memorize the gross-to-net performance margins for Class A aircraft: 0.8% gradient reduction for two-engine aeroplanes, 0.9% for three-engine aeroplanes, and 1.0% for four-engine aeroplanes in the takeoff flight path.

4Drill point of equal time (PET) and point of safe return (PSR): PET distance = (Total Distance × Groundspeed Home) / (Groundspeed Out + Groundspeed Home); PSR time = (Safe Fuel Endurance × Groundspeed Home) / (Groundspeed Out + Groundspeed Home).

5Understand modern glass cockpit architecture: Attitude and Heading Reference Systems (AHRS) utilize solid-state micro-electromechanical sensors (MEMS) and ring laser gyros (RLG) rather than conventional spinning mass gyros.

6Review high-altitude meteorology: Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) is commonly associated with strong horizontal and vertical wind shear near jet streams and tropopause discontinuities.

7Master inertial navigation and GNSS: An Inertial Reference System (IRS) measures linear acceleration with accelerometers and angular rates with laser gyros, computing position via double integration; position error drifts over time without radio/GNSS position updating.

8Know ETOPS/EDTO critical fuel scenarios: Standard scenarios include engine failure with drift down to single-engine ceiling, cabin depressurization with emergency descent to 10,000 ft, and simultaneous engine failure plus depressurization.

9Understand RNP and PBN specifications: RNP 1 requires the aircraft to maintain total system error within ±1.0 nautical mile for at least 95% of total flight time, with on-board performance monitoring and alerting.

10Review multi-crew CRM and human factors: The Swiss Cheese Model illustrates how organizational accidents occur when defensive layers fail concurrently due to latent conditions and active failures.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the Norwegian ATPL Theory Examination?

The Norwegian ATPL theory assessment is a set of 13 electronic subject papers administered by Luftfartstilsynet under EASA Part-FCL.515 and BSL C 1-1.

How many authority subject papers comprise the ATPL(A) theory examination?

There are 13 authority subject papers. Area 100 KSA is integrated into professional training and assessed by the ATO, but it is not a fourteenth Luftfartstilsynet paper.

What is the passing standard for each ATPL subject?

Candidates must achieve at least 75% in each of the 13 individual subject papers.

What language is used for the Norwegian ATPL examinations?

Luftfartstilsynet states that the professional-pilot theory examinations are available in English.

How long is an ATPL theory pass valid?

A completed pass in all 13 papers is valid for 36 months toward CPL or IR issuance. For ATPL issuance, the theory remains valid for 7 years from the latest validity date of an IR entered in the licence.

What is the time limit to pass all 13 subject papers?

Candidates have an 18-month window from the end of the calendar month of their first examination attempt, spanning a maximum of 6 examination sittings, with no more than 4 attempts allowed on any single subject paper.

Where are the ATPL examinations held in Norway?

The exams are administered electronically on secure terminals at designated Statens vegvesen traffic stations on behalf of Luftfartstilsynet.

How much does sitting the ATPL theory exams cost in Norway?

The 2026 BSL A 1-2 fee is NOK 960 per subject attempt, invoiced by Luftfartstilsynet after the examination.