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Free Practice Questions for HPCNA Nurse & Midwife Pre-Registration Evaluation

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Exam pass rate: 39% for nurse and midwife practitioner graduates (600 of 1,523, January 2025 to mid-2026, as reported to Parliament)
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Key Facts: HPCNA Nurse & Midwife Pre-Registration Evaluation Exam

39%

pass rate for nurse and midwife practitioner graduates (600 of 1,523) from January 2025, in figures HPCNA reported to Parliament

The Namibian, July 2026

N$630

evaluation fee per attempt for newly graduated Namibian nurse and midwife or accoucheur practitioners

Government Notice 943 of 2025

3 sittings

graduate evaluation sittings scheduled for 2026 (March, July and October)

HPCNA Evaluation Schedule for 2026

Act 16 of 2024

Health Professions Act in force since 20 March 2025, replacing the Nursing Act 8 of 2004

Government Gazette 8550; HPCNA Registrar letter, 26 February 2026

The HPCNA Nursing Board Pre-Registration Evaluation is the written evaluation that nurse and midwife graduates and practitioners must pass before registration in Namibia under the Health Professions Act 16 of 2024, with three graduate sittings scheduled in 2026. HPCNA publishes no item count, duration, pass mark or blueprint. This independent OpenExamPrep bank offers 100 multiple-choice study questions on general nursing, midwifery, community health, mental health and professional ethos; it is a study aid, not a copy of the official paper.

Sample HPCNA Nurse & Midwife Pre-Registration Evaluation Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the HPCNA Nurse & Midwife Pre-Registration Evaluation exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A registered nurse is completing an admission assessment on an adult on the medical ward. Which set of observations falls within the usual resting range for a healthy adult?
A.BP 148/94 mmHg, pulse 104/min, respirations 22/min, temperature 38.1 °C
B.BP 116/74 mmHg, pulse 78/min, respirations 16/min, temperature 36.8 °C
C.BP 92/58 mmHg, pulse 54/min, respirations 10/min, temperature 35.6 °C
D.BP 124/82 mmHg, pulse 112/min, respirations 24/min, temperature 37.4 °C
Explanation: Typical resting adult values are a pulse of 60-100/min, respirations of 12-20/min, a temperature of about 36.5-37.5 °C and a blood pressure at or below about 120/80 mmHg. Knowing the normal baseline is what lets the nurse recognise early deterioration on later observations.
2An adult with type 1 diabetes is alert, sweaty and tremulous and can swallow safely. The capillary blood glucose is 2.8 mmol/L. What should the nurse do first?
A.Give 15-20 g of fast-acting oral glucose and recheck glucose after about 15 minutes
B.Give the next scheduled rapid-acting insulin dose early with a meal
C.Start an IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride and recheck the glucose level in one hour
D.Give 1 mg glucagon intramuscularly before offering anything by mouth
Explanation: A glucose below 4.0 mmol/L with symptoms is hypoglycaemia. A conscious patient who can swallow is treated with 15-20 g of quick-acting carbohydrate such as glucose tablets or juice, the glucose is rechecked after 10-15 minutes and treatment repeated if it is still low, followed by a longer-acting carbohydrate snack or meal.
3A 58-year-old has crushing central chest pain radiating to the left arm. The 12-lead ECG shows an anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction. BP is 142/88 mmHg and SpO2 is 96% on room air. Which immediate drug action is most appropriate while reperfusion is arranged?
A.Give oxygen at 15 L/min by non-rebreather mask regardless of SpO2
B.Give aspirin 300 mg to chew, unless contraindicated
C.Give enteric-coated aspirin 75 mg to swallow with water
D.Give pethidine 100 mg intramuscularly for the chest pain
Explanation: Chewed aspirin (150-300 mg) gives rapid antiplatelet action and is a first step in acute coronary syndrome unless the patient is allergic or has another contraindication. Oxygen is given only when saturation is low, and pain is managed with nitrates and titrated IV opioid as prescribed while reperfusion is organised.
4A patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium of 7.2 mmol/L. The monitor shows peaked T waves and a widening QRS complex. Which drug should the nurse prepare first to protect the heart?
A.IV 10% calcium gluconate, given slowly with ECG monitoring
B.IV soluble insulin with glucose to move potassium into cells
C.Oral sodium polystyrene sulfonate resin to remove potassium
D.IV furosemide 40 mg to increase urinary potassium loss
Explanation: Hyperkalaemia with ECG changes risks ventricular fibrillation or asystole. IV calcium stabilises the cardiac cell membrane within minutes without lowering the potassium level; it buys time while insulin-glucose (and nebulised salbutamol) shift potassium into cells and dialysis or binders remove it.
5A 24-year-old with acute severe asthma has a respiratory rate of 32/min, cannot complete sentences and has a peak expiratory flow of 45% of her best. Which initial drug treatment is indicated?
A.An oral theophylline loading dose before any inhaled therapy
B.Subcutaneous adrenaline as the main bronchodilator
C.A doubled dose of her inhaled corticosteroid via spacer, alone
D.Inhaled salbutamol by spacer or nebuliser plus a systemic corticosteroid
Explanation: Acute severe asthma is treated with repeated high-dose inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonist (salbutamol by spacer or oxygen-driven nebuliser if hypoxic) and an early systemic corticosteroid such as oral prednisolone or IV hydrocortisone. The steroid reduces airway inflammation and the risk of relapse.
6A 20-year-old is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis: pH 7.12, bicarbonate 9 mmol/L, glucose 28 mmol/L and serum potassium 3.1 mmol/L. What is the correct initial priority for fluids and insulin?
A.Start a fixed-rate insulin infusion now, then begin IV fluids once glucose falls
B.Give IV sodium bicarbonate first to correct the low pH
C.Give IV saline and potassium; hold insulin until potassium is corrected
D.Give IV 5% dextrose first so that insulin can be started safely
Explanation: Isotonic saline is the first step in DKA. Insulin drives potassium into cells, so when the potassium is already low (below about 3.3-3.5 mmol/L, depending on the guideline) insulin is held while potassium is replaced, to avoid life-threatening hypokalaemia and arrhythmia.
7On day 3 after open abdominal surgery, a 62-year-old reports pain, swelling and tenderness in the left calf, which is 3.5 cm larger than the right. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A.Massage the calf gently to ease the cramp and encourage walking
B.Keep the leg still and supported, avoid massage, and inform the doctor promptly
C.Apply a tight crepe bandage over the calf and review in 24 hours
D.Apply a hot water bottle to the calf and give oral analgesia
Explanation: Unilateral calf pain and swelling after major surgery suggest deep vein thrombosis. The nurse avoids massaging or manipulating the leg, watches for signs of pulmonary embolism, and reports promptly so that the patient can be assessed, imaged (duplex ultrasound) and anticoagulated.
8Fifteen minutes into a red cell transfusion, a patient develops rigors, low back pain, breathlessness and a temperature of 39.1 °C. The BP falls from 124/80 to 90/54 mmHg. What is the nurse's first action?
A.Slow the transfusion and give oral paracetamol for the fever
B.Give an antihistamine and continue the transfusion under observation
C.Stop the transfusion, keep IV access with saline via a new set, and call the doctor
D.Flush the blood line with 5% dextrose and recheck the observations
Explanation: These signs suggest an acute haemolytic (ABO-incompatible) reaction. The transfusion is stopped at once, the blood set is disconnected, venous access is kept open with 0.9% saline through a new giving set, the doctor is called, and the unit and patient samples are returned to the blood bank as per protocol.
9A patient with a severe head injury is in the high-care unit. Which group of vital signs makes up Cushing's triad, a late sign of raised intracranial pressure?
A.Falling blood pressure, tachycardia and rapid shallow breathing
B.Falling blood pressure, bradycardia and Cheyne-Stokes breathing
C.Rising blood pressure with narrowing pulse pressure, tachycardia and rapid hyperventilation
D.Rising systolic pressure with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia and irregular breathing
Explanation: Cushing's triad is a rising systolic blood pressure (often with a widening pulse pressure), bradycardia and an irregular breathing pattern. It reflects brainstem compression and is a late, ominous sign that needs immediate escalation.
10A 70 kg adult has deep partial-thickness burns of 36% total body surface area. Using the Parkland formula (4 mL x weight in kg x %TBSA over 24 hours), how much Ringer's lactate is planned for the first 8 hours after the burn?
A.5,040 mL
B.10,080 mL
C.3,360 mL
D.2,520 mL
Explanation: The 24-hour total is 4 x 70 x 36 = 10,080 mL. Half of the total (5,040 mL) is given in the first 8 hours counted from the time of the burn, and the other half over the next 16 hours, with the rate then adjusted to urine output.

About the HPCNA Nurse & Midwife Pre-Registration Evaluation Exam

The Health Professions Council of Namibia (HPCNA) Nursing Board Pre-Registration Evaluation is the written evaluation the Council may require under section 34(2) of the Health Professions Act 16 of 2024 before registering a nurse and midwife (or accoucheur) practitioner. It assesses professional knowledge, skills and competence and proficiency in English, Namibia's official language. The former Nursing Council's Regulatory Directives require all locally trained nursing and midwifery graduates to pass it from January 2025, and practitioners trained or registered elsewhere are also evaluated. HPCNA publishes no evaluation blueprint, so this bank covers the subjects in the gazetted minimum curriculum (GN 182 of 2017 and GN 18 of 2019): general nursing science, midwifery science, community health nursing science, mental health nursing, ethos and professional practice, and health service management. It is an independent English-language multiple-choice study aid by OpenExamPrep, not a simulation of the written evaluation.

Exam sponsor: Health Professions Council of Namibia (HPCNA) — Nursing Board. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Written evaluation set by the HPCNA Nursing Board under section 34 of the Health Professions Act 16 of 2024. The 2026 schedule lists graduate sittings on 25-26 March, 2-3 July and 14-15 October, and practitioner sittings on 19-20 March, 18 June and 15 October. Government Notice 943 of 2025 provides for re-marking of answer scripts. No public source confirms an oral or OSCE component for this nursing category.

Time Limit

Held over one or two days per sitting; HPCNA does not publish a session duration.

Passing Score

HPCNA does not publish a pass mark. In figures reported to Parliament in July 2026, 39% of nurse and midwife practitioner graduates (600 of 1,523) had passed since January 2025, and this group averaged 35% in the general nursing science domain.

Exam / Certification Fees

N$630 (Namibian) / N$1,260 (non-citizen) per attempt for newly graduated nurse and midwife or accoucheur practitioners; otherwise N$2,280 / N$8,680 for a first attempt and N$3,040 / N$11,560 for a subsequent attempt (GN 943 of 2025)

Exam sponsor website

Reported exam pass rate: 39% for nurse and midwife practitioner graduates (600 of 1,523, January 2025 to mid-2026, as reported to Parliament). This describes exam candidates, not OpenExamPrep users or results from using our resources. Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

~30% of this bank

General Nursing Science

Medical-surgical care, paediatric nursing, emergency and acute care, clinical pharmacology, and applied pathophysiology across body systems.

~25% of this bank

Midwifery Science and Neonatal Care

Antenatal care, normal labour and delivery, active management of the third stage, obstetric emergencies, puerperium, and sick neonate management.

~20% of this bank

Community Health Nursing Science

Primary health care, Expanded Programme on Immunisation (EPI), TB control, HIV/ART/PMTCT, malaria case management and vector control, nutrition, and reproductive health.

~12% of this bank

Ethos and Professional Practice

Health Professions Act 16 of 2024 (registration, licence to practise, discipline), patient rights, consent, confidentiality, accountability, and professional conduct.

~8% of this bank

Mental Health Nursing

Mental state examination, suicide risk, psychosis, mood disorders, antipsychotic adverse effects, and alcohol withdrawal.

~5% of this bank

Health Services Management

Leadership, quality improvement and root cause analysis, infection prevention and control, waste management, and medicine stock management.

Preparing for the HPCNA Nurse & Midwife Pre-Registration Evaluation Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: HPCNA does not publish a pass mark. In figures reported to Parliament in July 2026, 39% of nurse and midwife practitioner graduates (600 of 1,523) had passed since January 2025, and this group averaged 35% in the general nursing science domain.
  • Assessment: Written evaluation set by the HPCNA Nursing Board under section 34 of the Health Professions Act 16 of 2024. The 2026 schedule lists graduate sittings on 25-26 March, 2-3 July and 14-15 October, and practitioner sittings on 19-20 March, 18 June and 15 October. Government Notice 943 of 2025 provides for re-marking of answer scripts. No public source confirms an oral or OSCE component for this nursing category.
  • Time limit: Held over one or two days per sitting; HPCNA does not publish a session duration.
  • Exam / certification fees: N$630 (Namibian) / N$1,260 (non-citizen) per attempt for newly graduated nurse and midwife or accoucheur practitioners; otherwise N$2,280 / N$8,680 for a first attempt and N$3,040 / N$11,560 for a subsequent attempt (GN 943 of 2025) Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

HPCNA Nurse & Midwife Pre-Registration Evaluation: Suggested Study Strategy

1Review current Namibian Ministry of Health and Social Services programme guidance, including the National Guidelines for Antiretroviral Therapy (7th edition, 2025) for TLD and infant prophylaxis, TB treatment and preventive therapy, malaria case management with artemether-lumefantrine and artesunate, and the childhood immunisation schedule.
2Practise midwifery emergencies step by step: partograph interpretation, active management of the third stage of labour, magnesium sulphate for eclampsia, shoulder dystocia, cord prolapse and newborn resuscitation in the Golden Minute.
3Study the Health Professions Act 16 of 2024, especially registration and evaluation (section 34), the licence to practise (section 43) and disciplinary inquiries, together with consent, confidentiality, delegation and accountability.

Frequently Asked Questions

Who must take the HPCNA Nursing Board Pre-Registration Evaluation?

Section 34(2) of the Health Professions Act 16 of 2024 lets the Council require applicants for registration to pass a prescribed evaluation. Item (v) of the Nursing Council's Regulatory Directives (effective 1 October 2024) requires all locally trained nursing and midwifery graduates to pass the evaluation before registration or enrolment from January 2025, and practitioners who trained or were registered outside Namibia are also evaluated. Staff nurses and auxiliary nurses sit separate category evaluations.

When are the evaluation sittings held in 2026?

The HPCNA Evaluation Schedule for 2026 lists Nursing and Midwifery Graduate sittings on 25-26 March, 2-3 July and 14-15 October 2026, and Nursing and Midwifery Practitioner sittings on 19-20 March, 18 June and 15 October 2026. Approved applicants receive invitation letters 30 days before a sitting and must confirm attendance and pay the fee at least 7 days before it. Enquiries go to etqa@hpcna.com.na.

What fees are charged for the HPCNA Nursing Board evaluation?

Government Notice 943 of 2025, which repealed the Nursing Council's 2023 fee notice, charges newly graduated nurse and midwife or accoucheur practitioners N$630 (Namibian) or N$1,260 (non-citizen) for each attempt. Other applicants in this category pay N$2,280 / N$8,680 for a first attempt and N$3,040 / N$11,560 for a subsequent attempt. Re-marking of answer scripts costs N$600 / N$2,180 for graduates and N$1,150 / N$4,360 for practitioners.

What is the format of the evaluation?

It is a written evaluation held over one or two days per sitting. HPCNA does not publish the number of questions, question types, time limit, pass mark or domain weights, and no public source confirms an oral or OSCE component for this nursing category. The knowledge base is set by the gazetted minimum curriculum (GN 182 of 2017 and GN 18 of 2019) and HPCNA's prototype nursing and midwifery curriculum.

Is this an official HPCNA practice test?

No. This is independent practice by OpenExamPrep. The questions are English-language multiple-choice study items written from the gazetted curriculum subjects and current clinical guidelines; they do not simulate the format of the HPCNA written evaluation, and the topic percentages show our study coverage, not official weights.