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100+ Free Telangana Civil Judge Practice Questions

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Telangana Civil Judge Exam

100

objective MCQs in the preliminary screening test, carrying 100 marks (1 mark each)

High Court for the State of Telangana exam scheme

40%

minimum marks in prelims to be shortlisted for the mains in a 1:10 ratio of vacancies

Telangana Judicial Service recruitment notification

1 July 2024

date the BNS, BNSS and BSA replaced the IPC, CrPC and Indian Evidence Act

Government of India notification

3 years

minimum advocate practice required to be eligible to apply

Telangana Judicial Service rules

3 papers

in the descriptive mains: Civil Law, Criminal Law, and English translation plus essay

High Court for the State of Telangana exam scheme

50 marks

allotted to the final viva voce (personal interview)

Telangana Judicial Service recruitment notification

The preliminary screening test has 100 objective MCQs for 100 marks in 2 hours, with a 40% qualifying cutoff that only shortlists candidates (in a 1:10 ratio) and does not count toward the final ranking. Eligibility requires at least 3 years of practice as an advocate and an age of up to 35 years (relaxable). The syllabus is common to prelims and mains and covers civil law, criminal law under the new BNS/BNSS/BSA codes (in force from 1 July 2024), and Telangana state laws. The mains comprise Paper I Civil Law, Paper II Criminal Law and Paper III English translation plus essay, followed by a 50-mark viva voce.

Sample Telangana Civil Judge Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Telangana Civil Judge exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under the Constitution of India, the power of the High Court to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and 'for any other purpose' is conferred by which Article?
A.Article 32
B.Article 136
C.Article 227
D.Article 226
Explanation: Article 226 empowers every High Court to issue writs not only for enforcement of fundamental rights but also 'for any other purpose,' giving it wider scope than the Supreme Court's writ power. This breadth is a recurring distinction tested in Telangana judiciary prelims.
2Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to equality before the law and equal protection of the laws?
A.Article 14
B.Article 19
C.Article 21
D.Article 25
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees both 'equality before the law' (a negative, British concept) and 'equal protection of the laws' (a positive, American concept). It permits reasonable classification but forbids class legislation.
3The 'basic structure' doctrine, limiting Parliament's power to amend the Constitution, was first propounded in which case?
A.Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
B.Minerva Mills v. Union of India
C.Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
D.Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) held by a 7:6 majority that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution under Article 368 but cannot destroy or alter its 'basic structure.' This remains the foundational constitutional-law precedent.
4Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in which Part of the Constitution of India?
A.Part III
B.Part IVA
C.Part V
D.Part IV
Explanation: Part IV (Articles 36 to 51) contains the Directive Principles of State Policy, which are non-justiciable but fundamental in the governance of the country. Article 37 declares they shall not be enforceable by any court.
5The protection against being 'compelled to be a witness against himself' is guaranteed to an accused by which Article of the Constitution?
A.Article 20(1)
B.Article 20(2)
C.Article 20(3)
D.Article 22(1)
Explanation: Article 20(3) enshrines the rule against self-incrimination, providing that no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself. In Selvi v. State of Karnataka the Supreme Court held narco-analysis and brain-mapping without consent violate this protection.
6Which Article of the Constitution provides that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law within the territory of India, and which is regarded as the source of the doctrine of legitimate expectation?
A.Article 21
B.Article 16
C.Article 15
D.Article 14
Explanation: The doctrine of legitimate expectation is rooted in Article 14, as arbitrary State action defeating a person's reasonable expectation is treated as a violation of equality and a ground for judicial review. Indian courts have repeatedly anchored fairness in administrative action to Article 14.
7Under the Constitution, the appointment of a District Judge in a State is made by the Governor in consultation with which authority, as per Article 233?
A.The State Public Service Commission
B.The Chief Minister of the State
C.The Supreme Court of India
D.The High Court exercising jurisdiction in the State
Explanation: Article 233(1) provides that appointments of District Judges are made by the Governor in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to that State. This consultative role of the High Court safeguards judicial independence in subordinate-judiciary appointments.
8The right to a speedy trial has been read by the Supreme Court as an integral part of which fundamental right?
A.Article 19(1)(a)
B.Article 22
C.Article 14
D.Article 21
Explanation: In Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar the Supreme Court held that the right to a speedy trial is implicit in the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21. This expansive reading of Article 21 is a frequently tested point.
9Under Article 141 of the Constitution, the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on which courts?
A.Only the High Courts
B.Only the courts subordinate to the Supreme Court but not High Courts
C.Only the court that referred the matter
D.All courts within the territory of India
Explanation: Article 141 provides that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India. This is the constitutional basis of the doctrine of precedent (stare decisis) in India.
10A proclamation of President's Rule in a State under Article 356 must ordinarily be approved by both Houses of Parliament within how many months from the date of its issue?
A.One month
B.Three months
C.Six months
D.Two months
Explanation: Under Article 356, a proclamation of President's Rule ceases to operate at the expiration of two months unless approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament within that period. Once approved it continues for six months at a time.

About the Telangana Civil Judge Exam

The Telangana Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Examination recruits entry-level judges for the Telangana subordinate judiciary. It is conducted by the High Court for the State of Telangana (notified through TSPSC) and proceeds in three stages: a 100-mark objective preliminary screening test, three descriptive mains papers, and a viva voce.

Questions

100 scored questions

Time Limit

2 hours for the preliminary screening test (Computer Based Test); each of the three mains papers is 3 hours

Passing Score

Minimum 40% in the preliminary screening test to be shortlisted (1:10 of vacancies); in the mains, general/BC candidates need 55% in each paper and 60% in aggregate

Exam Fee

Application fee varies by category as per each year's notification (concessions for SC/ST/PwD/Ex-servicemen) (High Court for the State of Telangana / TSPSC)

Telangana Civil Judge Exam Content Outline

27%

Constitution of India & Code of Civil Procedure

Fundamental rights and duties, writ jurisdiction under Articles 226 and 32, basic structure doctrine, judicial appointments under Article 233, and CPC 1908 topics such as jurisdiction (s.9, s.16), res judicata (s.11), pleadings, injunctions (Order 39), appeals (s.96, s.100) and inherent powers (s.151).

14%

Criminal Law - Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023

The new penal code (BNS), in force from 1 July 2024 replacing the IPC, including murder (s.101), culpable homicide (s.105), theft (s.303), cheating (s.318), criminal conspiracy (s.61), abetment (s.45), private defence (s.38), organised crime (s.111) and community service as a punishment.

21%

Criminal Procedure (BNSS 2023) & Evidence (BSA 2023)

Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita topics such as FIR (s.173), production within 24 hours (s.58), custody (s.187), charge sheet (s.193), anticipatory bail (s.482) and inherent powers (s.528); and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam topics including electronic evidence, confessions, dying declarations, expert opinion and burden of proof.

20%

Contract, Property, Specific Relief, Easements & Limitation

Indian Contract Act 1872 (consideration, free consent, frustration, damages, guarantee), Transfer of Property Act 1882 (sale, mortgage, lis pendens, part performance, perpetuity), Specific Relief Act 1963 (post-2018 amendment), Indian Easements Act 1882 and Limitation Act 1963 (Article 65, condonation of delay, acknowledgment).

10%

Personal Laws & Negotiable Instruments

Hindu Marriage Act 1955 (void/voidable marriages, divorce), Hindu Succession Act 1956 (Class I heirs, daughter's coparcenary rights after the 2005 amendment), Muslim personal law (Hiba), the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 (cheque dishonour under s.138) and the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act 2005.

8%

Telangana State Laws & Law of Torts

Telangana (formerly A.P.) Buildings (Lease, Rent and Eviction) Control Act 1960, Registration Act 1908, Indian Stamp Act 1899, A.P. Land Encroachment Act 1905 and the law of torts (negligence, strict liability, res ipsa loquitur).

How to Pass the Telangana Civil Judge Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Minimum 40% in the preliminary screening test to be shortlisted (1:10 of vacancies); in the mains, general/BC candidates need 55% in each paper and 60% in aggregate
  • Exam length: 100 questions
  • Time limit: 2 hours for the preliminary screening test (Computer Based Test); each of the three mains papers is 3 hours
  • Exam fee: Application fee varies by category as per each year's notification (concessions for SC/ST/PwD/Ex-servicemen)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Telangana Civil Judge Study Tips from Top Performers

1Switch your criminal-law preparation to the BNS, BNSS and BSA section numbers (in force from 1 July 2024) and learn the key IPC/CrPC/Evidence-to-new-code mappings, since old section numbers are no longer current law.
2Master the Code of Civil Procedure and the Constitution thoroughly, as together they form roughly a quarter of the bank and reward bare-Act precision on section and Article numbers.
3Read the bare Acts directly for Contract, Transfer of Property, Specific Relief and Limitation, focusing on doctrines like frustration, lis pendens, part performance, the rule against perpetuity and adverse-possession limitation under Article 65.
4Do not neglect Telangana state laws such as the Rent Control Act 1960, Registration Act and Stamp Act, which carry weight in both prelims and mains and distinguish state-judiciary aspirants.
5Practise leading Supreme Court cases (Kesavananda Bharati, Mohori Bibee, Hadley v. Baxendale, Vineeta Sharma, Pulukuri Kottaya) so you can apply doctrine to fact-pattern MCQs quickly.
6Solve full-length 100-question timed mocks to build the speed needed to clear the 40% screening cutoff within the 2-hour limit.

Frequently Asked Questions

Who conducts the Telangana Judicial Service Civil Judge exam and how many stages are there?

It is conducted by the High Court for the State of Telangana, with the notification published through the Telangana State Public Service Commission (TSPSC). There are three stages: a preliminary objective screening test, three descriptive mains papers, and a viva voce of 50 marks.

What is the pattern of the preliminary screening test?

The prelims is a Computer Based Test of 100 multiple-choice objective questions carrying 100 marks (1 mark each), to be completed in 2 hours. Candidates must score at least 40% to be shortlisted for the mains in a 1:10 ratio of vacancies, and prelims marks do not count toward the final rank.

Are the criminal-law questions based on the IPC or the new BNS, BNSS and BSA?

From 1 July 2024 the Indian Penal Code, Code of Criminal Procedure and Indian Evidence Act were replaced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023 and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023. Criminal-law and procedure questions are now framed primarily under these new codes, with IPC-to-BNS mappings noted for context.

What is the eligibility to apply for the Telangana Civil Judge exam?

An applicant must be a law graduate enrolled as an advocate and must have been practising for at least 3 years as on the first day of the notification month. The general upper age limit is 35 years, relaxable for reserved and other eligible categories per each year's notification.

What does the mains examination consist of?

The mains is descriptive and has three papers of 100 marks each, each of 3 hours: Paper I Civil Law, Paper II Criminal Law, and Paper III comprising an English-to-Telugu/Hindi translation test (30 marks) and an essay-writing test (70 marks).

Which Telangana-specific laws are tested?

Candidates should know the Telangana (formerly Andhra Pradesh) Buildings (Lease, Rent and Eviction) Control Act 1960, the A.P. Land Encroachment Act 1905, the Registration Act 1908, the Indian Stamp Act 1899 and Telangana civil and criminal rules of practice, alongside the central laws.