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100+ Free Assam Judicial Service (Grade III) Practice Questions

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Assam Judicial Service (Grade III) Exam

100 marks

Preliminary objective MCQ paper, taken on OMR in 2 hours

Gauhati High Court AJS Grade III syllabus

90 + 10

Prelims split: 90 marks legal subjects and GK, 10 marks Assamese proficiency

Gauhati High Court AJS Grade III syllabus

1 July 2024

Date BNS, BNSS and BSA replaced the IPC, CrPC and Evidence Act

Government of India, new criminal codes

22 vacancies

Grade III posts notified in the Assam Judicial Service 2025 recruitment

Gauhati High Court notification, 2025

168 candidates

Qualified the 2025 Preliminary for the Mains (held October 2025)

Gauhati High Court result notification, 2025

3 stages

Preliminary (objective), Mains (descriptive), and Viva-Voce of 50 marks

Gauhati High Court AJS Grade III recruitment rules

The AJS Grade III selection has three stages: Preliminary (objective MCQ, 100 marks, 2 hours, OMR), Mains (descriptive, four 100-mark law and language papers plus a 50-mark qualifying Assamese paper), and Viva-Voce (50 marks). The Preliminary covers Constitution, CPC, criminal law and procedure (now BNS/BNSS/BSA after the 1 July 2024 reform), Indian Contract Act, Transfer of Property Act, Law of Torts, General Knowledge, and 10 marks of Assamese proficiency. For the 2025 cycle the Gauhati High Court notified 22 Grade-III vacancies and 168 candidates qualified the Preliminary for the Mains.

Sample Assam Judicial Service (Grade III) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Assam Judicial Service (Grade III) exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under the Constitution of India, which Article empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights?
A.Article 32
B.Article 226
C.Article 136
D.Article 142
Explanation: Article 32 is itself a fundamental right and empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs (habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, certiorari) for the enforcement of Part III rights. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar called it the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution.
2The doctrine of 'basic structure' of the Constitution was propounded by the Supreme Court in which landmark case?
A.Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
B.A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
C.Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D.Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Explanation: In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), a 13-judge bench held that Parliament can amend the Constitution under Article 368 but cannot alter its 'basic structure'. This doctrine limits the amending power.
3Which Article of the Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, expanded by the judiciary to include a wide range of unenumerated rights?
A.Article 14
B.Article 19
C.Article 21
D.Article 25
Explanation: Article 21 provides that no person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. Post-Maneka Gandhi (1978), the 'procedure' must be just, fair and reasonable, and the Article now encompasses privacy, dignity, livelihood, and a healthy environment.
4Under Article 226 of the Constitution, the jurisdiction of a High Court to issue writs:
A.Is confined strictly to enforcement of fundamental rights
B.Is available only against the Union Government
C.Can be invoked only after the Supreme Court declines relief
D.Extends to enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose
Explanation: Article 226 empowers a High Court to issue writs not only for enforcement of fundamental rights but also 'for any other purpose', giving it wider scope than Article 32. It can be exercised against any authority, including private bodies discharging public functions.
5The Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Part IV of the Constitution are:
A.Enforceable in a court of law like fundamental rights
B.Subordinate to the Preamble alone
C.Binding only on the State of Assam
D.Fundamental in the governance of the country but not enforceable by any court
Explanation: Article 37 declares that the Directive Principles, though fundamental in the governance of the country, shall not be enforceable by any court, yet the State is duty-bound to apply them in making laws. They are positive obligations on the State.
6Which of the following is NOT one of the writs that can be issued under Articles 32 and 226?
A.Habeas corpus
B.Quo warranto
C.Injunction
D.Certiorari
Explanation: The five constitutional writs are habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari. An injunction is an equitable remedy granted by civil courts under the Specific Relief Act and CPC, not a constitutional writ.
7Under the Constitution, the power to amend the Constitution is vested in Parliament by:
A.Article 352
B.Article 356
C.Article 368
D.Article 370
Explanation: Article 368 lays down the procedure for amendment of the Constitution by Parliament, including special majority and, for certain provisions, ratification by half the State legislatures. This power is subject to the basic structure doctrine.
8The principle of 'audi alteram partem' is a facet of:
A.The doctrine of pleasure
B.The rule against double jeopardy
C.The doctrine of eclipse
D.The rules of natural justice
Explanation: 'Audi alteram partem' (hear the other side) and 'nemo judex in causa sua' (no one a judge in his own cause) are the twin pillars of natural justice. Violation of these principles renders an administrative or quasi-judicial order liable to be quashed.
9Under Article 20(3) of the Constitution, the protection against self-incrimination is available to:
A.Any witness in a civil suit
B.Only persons in police custody
C.Only undertrial prisoners
D.A person accused of an offence
Explanation: Article 20(3) provides that no person 'accused of any offence' shall be compelled to be a witness against himself. In State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu Oghad, the Supreme Court held the protection applies to testimonial compulsion of an accused, not to obtaining specimen signatures or fingerprints.
10The 'Procedure established by law' under Article 21, as interpreted in Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), must be:
A.Merely enacted by a competent legislature
B.Approved by the President
C.Just, fair and reasonable and not arbitrary
D.Consistent only with Article 19
Explanation: In Maneka Gandhi, the Supreme Court read Articles 14, 19 and 21 together and held that any procedure depriving a person of life or liberty must be just, fair and reasonable, importing substantive due process into Article 21.

About the Assam Judicial Service (Grade III) Practice Questions

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