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100+ Free Bihar Civil Judge Exam Practice Questions

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Bihar Civil Judge Exam Exam

173

Civil Judge (Junior Division) vacancies notified in the 33rd Bihar Judiciary exam

BPSC Advertisement No. 12/2026

250 marks

Total Preliminary marks (Paper I 100 + Paper II Law 150), objective OMR, no negative marking

BPSC Bihar Judiciary exam pattern

1 July 2024

Date the BNS, BNSS and BSA replaced the IPC, CrPC and Indian Evidence Act

Government of India / India Code

Rs. 100

Application fee for all categories under the 33rd Bihar Judiciary notification

BPSC Advertisement No. 12/2026

1,050 + 100

Mains (1,050) and Interview (100) marks that alone decide the final merit list

BPSC Bihar Judicial Service exam scheme

22-35 years

Age range with LLB degree required to apply (relaxations apply)

BPSC eligibility, Advt. 12/2026

The 33rd Bihar Judiciary exam (Advt. No. 12/2026) was notified for 173 Civil Judge (Junior Division) vacancies. The Preliminary stage is a 250-mark objective OMR test (Paper I General Studies 100 marks; Paper II Law 150 marks) held in one 210-minute sitting with no negative marking and is only qualifying. Final selection rests entirely on the Mains (1,050 marks) and Interview (100 marks). Candidates must hold an LLB and be aged 22-35 (with category relaxations).

Sample Bihar Civil Judge Exam Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Bihar Civil Judge Exam exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which section provides the punishment for murder (the provision corresponding to Section 302 of the repealed Indian Penal Code)?
A.Section 103
B.Section 101
C.Section 105
D.Section 302
Explanation: Punishment for murder is contained in Section 103 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which corresponds to the old Section 302 IPC. The BNS replaced the IPC with effect from 1 July 2024.
2The three new criminal codes — Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, all of 2023 — came into force replacing the IPC, CrPC and Indian Evidence Act on which date?
A.26 January 2024
B.1 April 2024
C.1 July 2024
D.15 August 2024
Explanation: The three new codes came into force on 1 July 2024, after a six-month preparation period following their passage in December 2023. Offences committed on or after that date are governed by the new codes; offences before it remain under the IPC/CrPC/Evidence Act.
3A is tried for the murder of B. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, B's statement as to the cause of his death or the circumstances of the transaction that resulted in his death is admissible as a 'dying declaration'. Under which provision?
A.Section 26(a)
B.Section 32(1)
C.Section 6
D.Section 60
Explanation: Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the dying declaration is admissible under Section 26(a). This corresponds to Section 32(1) of the old Indian Evidence Act, 1872. The principle rests on the maxim nemo moriturus praesumitur mentire.
4The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, consists of how many sections, as compared with the 167 sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.170 sections
B.167 sections
C.358 sections
D.511 sections
Explanation: The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, contains 170 sections, against the 167 sections of the repealed Indian Evidence Act, 1872. It is structured into 4 parts, 12 chapters and 170 sections.
5Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what does Section 318 deal with — the provision corresponding to the offence of cheating (formerly Sections 415/420 IPC)?
A.Cheating
B.Criminal breach of trust
C.Theft
D.Extortion
Explanation: Section 318 of the BNS deals with cheating, consolidating the definition (old IPC s.415) and punishment (old IPC s.420) into sub-sections. The upper limit of imprisonment for ordinary cheating was increased.
6Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which provision deals with the registration of a First Information Report (FIR) in cognizable cases, corresponding to Section 154 of the old CrPC?
A.Section 173
B.Section 154
C.Section 190
D.Section 482
Explanation: Section 173 of the BNSS, 2023, governs information in cognizable cases and the registration of the FIR, corresponding to Section 154 of the repealed CrPC, 1973. The BNSS also expressly provides for electronic registration of FIRs and 'Zero FIR'.
7Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, and has been judicially expanded to include the right to a speedy trial, privacy and a clean environment?
A.Article 14
B.Article 19
C.Article 21
D.Article 32
Explanation: Article 21 guarantees that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. Through Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) and later decisions, it has been read expansively to include privacy, speedy trial, a clean environment and dignity.
8In which landmark case did the Supreme Court hold that the 'basic structure' of the Constitution cannot be altered or destroyed by Parliament through a constitutional amendment under Article 368?
A.Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B.Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
C.Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D.A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) propounded the basic structure doctrine: Parliament may amend the Constitution but cannot destroy its basic structure or essential features. This 13-judge bench decision remains the cornerstone of Indian constitutional law.
9Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement made without consideration is generally void. Which of the following is NOT a recognised exception under Section 25?
A.A written and registered promise made on account of natural love and affection between parties standing in a near relation
B.A promise to compensate a person who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor
C.A promise to pay a time-barred debt, made in writing and signed
D.An agreement to pay for goods to be supplied in the future
Explanation: Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, lists exceptions to the rule that agreements without consideration are void: natural love and affection (in writing and registered), past voluntary services, and a written promise to pay a time-barred debt. A simple agreement to pay for future goods is supported by consideration and is not an 'exception'.
10Under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, on dishonour of a cheque for insufficiency of funds, within how many days must the payee issue a demand notice to the drawer after receiving information of the dishonour from the bank?
A.30 days
B.15 days
C.45 days
D.90 days
Explanation: Under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the payee must, within 30 days of receiving information of dishonour from the bank, make a written demand for payment. The drawer then has 15 days to pay before a cause of action arises for prosecution.

About the Bihar Civil Judge Exam Practice Questions

Verified exam format metadata for Bihar Judicial Service Civil Judge Exam is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.