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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Odisha Civil Judge Exam

100

Objective MCQs in the preliminary paper (100 marks)

OPSC Odisha Judicial Service syllabus

90 minutes

Duration of the preliminary examination

OPSC Odisha Judicial Service syllabus

0.25

Negative marks deducted per wrong answer in prelims

OPSC Odisha Judicial Service syllabus

40% / 35%

Prelims qualifying cutoff (general / SC-ST)

OPSC Odisha Judicial Service rules

Rs. 700

Application fee (SC/ST/PwD exempt)

OPSC Civil Judge Notification 2026

1 July 2024

Date BNS, BNSS and BSA replaced the IPC, CrPC and Evidence Act

Government of India, new criminal laws

The Odisha Judicial Service Civil Judge exam is conducted by the OPSC in three stages: a preliminary MCQ screening, a descriptive main exam, and an interview. The preliminary paper is 100 objective questions for 100 marks in 90 minutes, with a 25% negative-marking penalty per wrong answer. Its ten official subjects are the Constitution of India, CPC, criminal procedure (now BNSS 2023), evidence (now BSA 2023), substantive criminal law (now BNS 2023), the Limitation Act, Transfer of Property Act, Contract Act, law of succession, and the Specific Relief Act. Criminal-law and procedure questions follow the three new criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA) that replaced the IPC, CrPC and Evidence Act on 1 July 2024. Candidates must clear 40% (35% for SC/ST) in prelims to be called for mains; the application fee is Rs. 700, and Odia language proficiency is mandatory.

Sample Odisha Civil Judge Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Odisha Civil Judge exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under the Constitution of India, which writ is issued to a public official to compel the performance of a public duty that the official has refused to perform?
A.Habeas Corpus
B.Certiorari
C.Quo Warranto
D.Mandamus
Explanation: Mandamus ('we command') under Articles 32 and 226 is issued by a court to a public authority directing it to perform a public or statutory duty it has failed to discharge. It lies only where there is a legal right to the performance of a corresponding legal duty.
2Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to constitutional remedies and was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution?
A.Article 19
B.Article 21
C.Article 32
D.Article 44
Explanation: Article 32 confers the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights and empowers it to issue writs. Dr. Ambedkar called it the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution because the rights themselves would be meaningless without a remedy to enforce them.
3The doctrine of 'basic structure' of the Constitution, limiting Parliament's amending power under Article 368, was propounded by the Supreme Court in which case?
A.Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
B.Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C.Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D.Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Explanation: In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), a 13-judge Bench held that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution but cannot alter its 'basic structure'. This doctrine remains the bedrock of Indian constitutional law.
4Under Article 21 of the Constitution, the expression 'procedure established by law' was interpreted to require that the procedure must be 'fair, just and reasonable' in which landmark decision?
A.A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
B.ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
C.Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D.Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation
Explanation: In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), the Supreme Court held that the procedure depriving a person of life or liberty under Article 21 must be fair, just and reasonable, reading the American concept of due process into the Article and overruling the narrow view in A.K. Gopalan.
5Which List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution contains 'Police' and 'Public Order' as subjects, falling within the exclusive legislative competence of State Legislatures?
A.Union List
B.State List
C.Concurrent List
D.Residuary List
Explanation: Public Order (Entry 1) and Police (Entry 2) appear in List II (State List) of the Seventh Schedule, on which State Legislatures have exclusive power to make laws under Article 246.
6Article 14 of the Constitution permits 'reasonable classification' for the purpose of legislation. Which of the following twin tests must such a classification satisfy?
A.It must be based on intelligible differentia and the differentia must have a rational nexus with the object sought to be achieved
B.It must be approved by Parliament and notified in the Official Gazette
C.It must be uniform across all States and Union Territories
D.It must be supported by a two-thirds majority of the legislature
Explanation: Under the equal protection clause of Article 14, a classification is valid only if it is founded on an intelligible differentia distinguishing grouped persons from those left out, and that differentia bears a rational nexus to the object of the law. This is the settled twin test laid down in cases such as State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar.
7Under Article 226 of the Constitution, the power of a High Court to issue writs is, in one important respect, wider than the Supreme Court's power under Article 32. What is that difference?
A.A High Court can issue writs only for fundamental rights
B.A High Court can issue writs both for enforcement of fundamental rights and 'for any other purpose', i.e. legal rights
C.A High Court can issue writs only against the State Government
D.A High Court can issue writs only with the prior sanction of the Governor
Explanation: Article 32 is confined to the enforcement of fundamental rights, whereas Article 226 empowers a High Court to issue writs both for enforcement of fundamental rights and 'for any other purpose', making its writ jurisdiction wider in scope.
8Which Directive Principle of State Policy, contained in Article 50, is directly relevant to the independence of the judiciary?
A.Promotion of cottage industries
B.Equal pay for equal work
C.Provision of free legal aid
D.Separation of the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State
Explanation: Article 50 directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State, a Directive Principle aimed at securing judicial independence.
9The right to privacy was declared a fundamental right intrinsic to Article 21 by a nine-judge Bench of the Supreme Court in which case?
A.Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
B.Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
C.Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
D.Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
Explanation: In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge Bench unanimously held that the right to privacy is a fundamental right protected under Article 21 and Part III, overruling earlier contrary decisions like M.P. Sharma and Kharak Singh.
10Under Article 13 of the Constitution, a law inconsistent with or in derogation of fundamental rights is:
A.Valid until repealed by the legislature
B.Valid only in respect of citizens
C.Required to be re-enacted with a special majority
D.Void to the extent of such inconsistency
Explanation: Article 13(1) and 13(2) declare that any law inconsistent with the fundamental rights in Part III shall, to the extent of the inconsistency, be void. This embodies the doctrine of eclipse and severability in Indian constitutional law.

About the Odisha Civil Judge Exam

The Odisha Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Examination is conducted by the Odisha Public Service Commission (OPSC) to recruit Civil Judges for the subordinate judiciary of Odisha. Recruitment has three stages: a preliminary objective screening test of 100 MCQs (100 marks, 90 minutes, with 0.25 negative marking), a descriptive main written examination of compulsory and optional papers, and a viva-voce interview. The 2026 cycle (Advt. No. 02 of 2026-2027) announced 78 vacancies.

Questions

100 scored questions

Time Limit

Preliminary: 1 hour 30 minutes (100 objective questions, 100 marks)

Passing Score

Prelims qualifying cutoff: 40% for general candidates and 35% for SC/ST candidates (cutoff for the mains call varies by year and category)

Exam Fee

Rs. 700 (SC/ST and PwD candidates exempt) (Odisha Public Service Commission (OPSC))

Odisha Civil Judge Exam Content Outline

14%

Constitution of India

Fundamental rights and writs (Articles 32 and 226), the basic structure doctrine (Kesavananda Bharati), reasonable classification under Article 14, due process under Article 21 (Maneka Gandhi), directive principles, and the distribution of legislative powers under the Seventh Schedule.

13%

Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

Jurisdiction (Section 9), res judicata and res sub judice (Sections 10-11), rejection of plaint (Order VII Rule 11), temporary injunctions (Order XXXIX), second appeals on a substantial question of law (Section 100), execution (Section 47), inherent powers (Section 151) and ADR references (Section 89).

25%

Criminal Procedure (BNSS) & Evidence (BSA)

Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023 (FIR, Zero FIR, bail, default bail, anticipatory bail under Section 482, charge sheet, trial in absentia) and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023 (relevancy, dying declarations, confessions, burden of proof, electronic evidence) — the two new codes that replaced the CrPC and the Evidence Act on 1 July 2024.

13%

Substantive Criminal Law (BNS, 2023)

Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 (replacing the IPC from 1 July 2024): murder and culpable homicide, theft, extortion, cheating, criminal breach of trust, common intention, abetment, criminal conspiracy, general exceptions, private defence, and new offences such as organised crime (Section 111).

17%

Contract Act & Transfer of Property Act

Indian Contract Act 1872 (essentials, capacity, free consent, frustration, damages under Section 73, guarantee, bailment, restraint of trade, quantum meruit) and Transfer of Property Act 1882 (mortgage, lease, lis pendens, part performance under Section 53A, rule against perpetuity, doctrine of election).

18%

Limitation, Specific Relief & Succession

Limitation Act 1963 (bar of limitation, condonation of delay, exclusion of time, acknowledgement, extinguishment of right under Section 27), Specific Relief Act 1963 as amended in 2018 (specific performance, injunctions, recovery of possession), and the law of succession (Indian Succession Act 1925 wills; Hindu Succession Act 1956 including the 2005 daughter-as-coparcener amendment).

How to Pass the Odisha Civil Judge Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Prelims qualifying cutoff: 40% for general candidates and 35% for SC/ST candidates (cutoff for the mains call varies by year and category)
  • Exam length: 100 questions
  • Time limit: Preliminary: 1 hour 30 minutes (100 objective questions, 100 marks)
  • Exam fee: Rs. 700 (SC/ST and PwD candidates exempt)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Odisha Civil Judge Study Tips from Top Performers

1Prioritize the procedural codes — CPC, BNSS (criminal procedure) and BSA (evidence) together carry the largest share of the prelims, so master limitation periods, bail provisions, FIR/charge-sheet stages, relevancy rules and key sections cold
2Study criminal law, procedure and evidence under the new codes (BNS, BNSS, BSA) that came into force on 1 July 2024, but keep a mapping of the old IPC/CrPC/Evidence Act section numbers since many questions test the correspondence
3Memorize the standard limitation periods from the Schedule to the Limitation Act (e.g. 3 years for breach of contract, 12 years for possession on title under Article 65) and the effect of Sections 5, 14, 18 and 27
4Lock down landmark constitutional cases — Kesavananda Bharati (basic structure), Maneka Gandhi (Article 21 due process), Puttaswamy (privacy) and Indra Sawhney (reservations) — because constitutional questions reward case-law recall
5Practice OMR-style MCQs under timed conditions because the prelims has 0.25 negative marking per wrong answer; learn to skip genuinely uncertain questions rather than guess blindly
6Cover the Odisha local laws (Orissa House Rent Control Act 1967 and Orissa Land Reforms Act 1960) and revise the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act 2018, which converted specific performance into a general rule rather than a discretionary remedy

Frequently Asked Questions

Is the Odisha Judicial Service Civil Judge preliminary exam objective or descriptive?

The preliminary examination is entirely objective. It is a single paper of 100 multiple-choice questions carrying 100 marks (one mark each) with a duration of one and a half hours. There is negative marking of 25% of the marks allotted to a question for every wrong answer, and OMR answer sheets are evaluated by computer. The subsequent main examination, by contrast, is descriptive.

What subjects are tested in the OPSC Civil Judge prelims?

The preliminary syllabus covers ten subjects: (a) Constitution of India, (b) Code of Civil Procedure, (c) Code of Criminal Procedure (now the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023), (d) the Evidence Act (now the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023), (e) the Indian Penal Code (now the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023), (f) the Limitation Act, (g) the Transfer of Property Act, (h) the Contract Act, (i) the law of succession (Indian Succession Act and Hindu Succession Act), and (j) the Specific Relief Act.

Do the new criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA) apply to the Odisha judiciary exam?

Yes. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023 and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code, the Code of Criminal Procedure and the Indian Evidence Act respectively with effect from 1 July 2024. Candidates should study criminal law, procedure and evidence primarily under these new codes, while understanding the corresponding old IPC/CrPC/Evidence Act provisions for context.

What is the qualifying cutoff to clear the Civil Judge prelims?

To be called for the main written examination, a candidate must secure at least 40% of the marks in the preliminary written examination (35% for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe candidates). The actual cutoff for the number of candidates called for mains varies each year by category and the number of vacancies.

Who is eligible to appear for the Odisha Judicial Service Civil Judge exam?

A candidate must be a law graduate from a recognised university with at least three years of practice as an advocate, be within the prescribed age band (about 23 to 42 years, with relaxations), and must be able to read, write and speak Odia, having passed an examination in Odia equivalent to the Middle English School (Class 8) standard. The 2026 notification announced 78 Civil Judge vacancies under Advertisement No. 02 of 2026-2027.

What is the application fee for the OPSC Civil Judge exam?

The application fee for the Odisha Judicial Service Civil Judge recruitment is Rs. 700 for general and unreserved candidates. Candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe and Persons with Benchmark Disabilities categories are exempt from paying the fee. Applications are submitted online through the OPSC portal.