PracticeVideosBlogFlashcardsEspañol
All Practice Exams

100+ Free Kerala Munsiff-Magistrate Practice Questions

Pass your Kerala Judicial Service Munsiff-Magistrate Exam exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately
100+ Questions
100% Free

Loading questions...

Same family resources

Explore More Indian Judicial Service Exams

Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.

Andhra Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge Exam

Practice Questions

Assam Judicial Service Civil Judge (Grade III) Exam

Practice Questions

Bihar Judicial Service Civil Judge Exam

Practice Questions

Chhattisgarh Judicial Service Civil Judge Exam

Practice Questions

Delhi Judicial Service Examination (DJS)

Practice Questions

Gujarat Judicial Service Civil Judge Exam

Practice Questions
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Kerala Munsiff-Magistrate Exam

100

Objective MCQs in the Preliminary Examination, 2 marks each (200 total)

Kerala Judicial Service Rules / exam notification

1 mark

Negative marking deducted for each wrong answer in the Preliminary

Kerala High Court / Kerala PSC exam scheme

2 hours 30 minutes

Duration of the objective Preliminary Examination

Kerala Judicial Service exam pattern

3 stages

Preliminary (objective), Main (4 descriptive papers, 400 marks) and viva-voce (50 marks)

Kerala Judicial Service Rules, 1991

1 July 2024

Date BNS, BNSS and BSA replaced the IPC, CrPC and Evidence Act

Government of India (new criminal laws)

1:10

Candidates per vacancy shortlisted from Preliminary for the Main exam

Kerala Judicial Service exam scheme

The Kerala Munsiff-Magistrate Preliminary Examination is a 100-question objective MCQ paper worth 200 marks (2 marks per question) with 1-mark negative marking, completed in 2 hours 30 minutes. The syllabus is split into Part A (civil and commercial law, ~40%), Part B (criminal law, procedure and evidence under the BNS/BNSS/BSA, ~30%) and Part C (Constitution, Legal GK and reasoning, ~30%). The Preliminary is only a screening test; for every notified vacancy the top 10 candidates advance to the four-paper, 400-mark Main examination and then a 50-mark viva-voce. Candidates must hold a law degree recognised by the Bar Council of India.

Sample Kerala Munsiff-Magistrate Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Kerala Munsiff-Magistrate exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, the principle that bars a court from trying a suit in which the matter directly and substantially in issue has been finally decided in a former suit between the same parties is known as:
A.Res sub judice
B.Caveat
C.Constructive notice
D.Res judicata
Explanation: Section 11 CPC embodies res judicata: once a competent court has finally decided a matter directly and substantially in issue between the same parties litigating under the same title, it cannot be re-litigated. The doctrine prevents multiplicity of proceedings and gives finality to judgments.
2An offer made to the world at large, capable of being accepted by anyone who performs the conditions, is best illustrated by which leading case under the Indian Contract Act 1872?
A.Balfour v. Balfour
B.Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
C.Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose
D.Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt
Explanation: Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. (1893) established that a general offer to the public can ripen into a binding contract when a person performs the stipulated conditions, and the deposit of money showed an intention to be bound. It illustrates a unilateral general offer under the Contract Act.
3Under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881, the offence of dishonour of a cheque is complete only after the drawer fails to make payment within how many days of receiving the demand notice?
A.7 days
B.30 days
C.15 days
D.21 days
Explanation: Under Section 138 NI Act, after a cheque is dishonoured the payee must issue a demand notice within 30 days, and the drawer gets 15 days from receipt of that notice to pay. The offence arises only if payment is not made within those 15 days. Limitation to file the complaint then runs for one month.
4Under the Transfer of Property Act 1882, a transfer of property to take effect on the happening of a specified uncertain event is called:
A.Vested interest
B.Spes successionis
C.Conditional limitation
D.Contingent interest
Explanation: Under Section 21 of the Transfer of Property Act, a contingent interest is created when a transfer is to take effect only on the happening (or not happening) of a specified uncertain event. The interest does not vest until the contingency occurs. It is contrasted with a vested interest under Section 19.
5Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, which provision now defines and punishes the offence of murder, replacing the erstwhile Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code?
A.Section 100 BNS
B.Section 101 BNS
C.Section 103 BNS
D.Section 105 BNS
Explanation: Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 (in force from 1 July 2024), Section 103 prescribes punishment for murder, corresponding to the old Section 302 IPC. Section 101 defines murder itself (formerly Section 300 IPC). The death penalty or life imprisonment remains the punishment.
6Under the Constitution of India, the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights is itself guaranteed as a Fundamental Right under which Article?
A.Article 32
B.Article 226
C.Article 136
D.Article 21
Explanation: Article 32 confers the right to constitutional remedies and empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Dr. Ambedkar called it the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution. It cannot be suspended except as provided by the Constitution.
7Under the Specific Relief Act 1963, after the 2018 amendment, specific performance of a contract is now generally:
A.A discretionary remedy granted only in exceptional cases
B.Enforceable as a rule, subject to limited statutory exceptions
C.Available only for contracts relating to immovable property
D.Never available where damages can be quantified
Explanation: The Specific Relief (Amendment) Act 2018 changed specific performance from a discretionary remedy to a general rule. Under the amended Section 10, specific performance is to be enforced by the court subject to the limited exceptions in Sections 11(2), 14 and 16, rather than at the court's broad discretion.
8Under the Kerala Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act 1965, an application by a landlord to evict a tenant must be filed before the:
A.Munsiff Court
B.Sub Divisional Magistrate
C.District Court
D.Rent Control Court
Explanation: Under the Kerala Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act 1965, eviction of a tenant is governed by Section 11, and the application must be made to the Rent Control Court constituted under the Act. Appeals lie to the Rent Control Appellate Authority and revision to the District Court or High Court.
9Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023, the provision dealing with information in cognizable cases (registration of FIR), corresponding to Section 154 of the old CrPC, is:
A.Section 154 BNSS
B.Section 173 BNSS
C.Section 175 BNSS
D.Section 190 BNSS
Explanation: Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023, Section 173 governs information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence (the FIR provision), corresponding to Section 154 of the CrPC 1973. The BNSS also introduces e-FIR and zero-FIR provisions.
10Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023, a fact which a party is forbidden to deny because of a previous declaration, act or omission relied upon by another, is governed by the rule of:
A.Res gestae
B.Corroboration
C.Hearsay
D.Estoppel
Explanation: Estoppel is preserved in the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023 (Section 121, corresponding to Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872). When a person has by declaration, act or omission caused another to believe a thing and act on it, he is estopped from denying its truth in any suit or proceeding.

About the Kerala Munsiff-Magistrate Exam

The Kerala Judicial Service Munsiff-Magistrate Examination recruits Munsiff-Magistrates (entry-level civil judges and judicial magistrates) for the Kerala Judicial Service. Selection has three stages: an objective MCQ Preliminary screening, a four-paper descriptive Main examination, and a viva-voce. Only the Preliminary stage is multiple-choice, with 100 questions across civil, criminal, procedural and constitutional law.

Questions

100 scored questions

Time Limit

2 hours 30 minutes (Preliminary)

Passing Score

Preliminary is a qualifying screening test; cutoff is usually around 50% for General/OBC and 40% for SC/ST, with marks not counted toward the final merit list

Exam Fee

Approx. Rs. 1,250 application fee in the last cycle; subject to change by notification and category (Kerala Public Service Commission (Kerala PSC))

Kerala Munsiff-Magistrate Exam Content Outline

25%

Civil Procedure & Civil Courts (CPC, Kerala Civil Courts Act)

Code of Civil Procedure 1908: jurisdiction, res judicata, pleadings, injunctions, decrees, appeals, review, execution under Order 21, and the structure of Munsiff and District Courts under the Kerala Civil Courts Act 1957.

20%

Contract, NI, Property, Specific Relief & Limitation

Indian Contract Act 1872, Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 (including Section 138 cheque dishonour), Transfer of Property Act 1882, Specific Relief Act 1963 (as amended in 2018) and Limitation Act 1963.

18%

Criminal Law (BNS) & Criminal Procedure (BNSS)

Offences, general exceptions and private defence under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, and FIR, arrest, bail, custody, cognizance and trial under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023, with IPC/CrPC mapping.

12%

Law of Evidence (BSA)

Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023: relevancy, res gestae, admissions, confessions, dying declarations, burden of proof, expert opinion, primary and secondary evidence and electronic records, with Evidence Act mapping.

15%

Constitution of India & Legal GK

Fundamental Rights and Duties, writs under Articles 32 and 226, basic structure doctrine, judicial review, Articles 142 and 368, subordinate judiciary (Articles 233-237) and landmark constitutional cases.

5%

Kerala State & Personal Laws

Kerala Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act 1965, Kerala Land Reforms Act 1963, Hindu and Muslim personal law, Sale of Goods Act, Partnership Act and the law of torts.

5%

Reasoning, Mental Ability & Language

Number series, coding-decoding, blood relations, analytical aptitude and English/Malayalam language ability as required by the syllabus.

How to Pass the Kerala Munsiff-Magistrate Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Preliminary is a qualifying screening test; cutoff is usually around 50% for General/OBC and 40% for SC/ST, with marks not counted toward the final merit list
  • Exam length: 100 questions
  • Time limit: 2 hours 30 minutes (Preliminary)
  • Exam fee: Approx. Rs. 1,250 application fee in the last cycle; subject to change by notification and category

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Kerala Munsiff-Magistrate Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master the IPC-to-BNS, CrPC-to-BNSS and Evidence Act-to-BSA section mappings, since criminal law, procedure and evidence are now tested under the new codes effective 1 July 2024.
2Prioritise Part A (civil and commercial law), which carries roughly 40% of the Preliminary paper, with deep focus on CPC, Contract Act and Negotiable Instruments Act Section 138.
3Read the bare Acts of the Kerala Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act 1965 and Kerala Land Reforms Act 1963, as Kerala-specific laws are commonly tested and often overlooked.
4Account for the 1-mark negative marking by attempting only the questions you are reasonably confident about, rather than guessing blindly across all 100.
5Solve previous-year Kerala judiciary Preliminary papers and full-length timed mocks to build speed for the 2 hour 30 minute paper.
6Strengthen Constitution and Legal GK with landmark cases such as Kesavananda Bharati, Maneka Gandhi and Vineeta Sharma, which frequently anchor Part C questions.

Frequently Asked Questions

Is the Kerala Munsiff-Magistrate exam objective or descriptive?

It has both. The Preliminary Examination is purely objective, with 100 multiple-choice questions worth 200 marks. The Main Examination that follows is descriptive (four 3-hour papers of 100 marks each), and there is also a viva-voce. The Preliminary is a screening stage and its marks do not count toward the final merit list.

How many questions are in the Preliminary and is there negative marking?

The Preliminary Examination has 100 multiple-choice questions carrying 2 marks each, for a maximum of 200 marks. There is negative marking of 1 mark for every wrong answer, and the duration is 2 hours 30 minutes.

What is the syllabus structure of the Preliminary Examination?

The Preliminary syllabus has three parts. Part A covers civil and commercial law (CPC, Contract Act, Negotiable Instruments Act, Transfer of Property Act, Specific Relief Act and the Kerala Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act). Part B covers criminal law, procedure and evidence. Part C covers the Constitution of India, Legal GK and Reasoning & Mental Ability.

Does the exam test the new criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)?

Yes. Since the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023 and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023 replaced the IPC, CrPC and Indian Evidence Act on 1 July 2024, criminal law, procedure and evidence are now tested primarily under the new codes. Candidates should learn the IPC-to-BNS, CrPC-to-BNSS and Evidence Act-to-BSA section mappings.

Who is eligible and what is the age limit?

A candidate must hold a degree in law recognised by the Bar Council of India for enrolment as an advocate. The upper age limit is generally that the candidate should not have completed 35 years as on the date in the notification, with relaxations of five years for SC/ST and three years for OBC candidates.

How many candidates qualify from the Preliminary for the Main exam?

For every notified vacancy, the top 10 candidates in order of merit in the Preliminary Examination are shortlisted for the Main Examination, subject to the qualifying cutoff. The four-paper Main exam carries 400 marks and is followed by a 50-mark viva-voce that, together with the Main marks, decides final selection.