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100+ Free Jharkhand Civil Judge (JPSC) Practice Questions
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Key Facts: Jharkhand Civil Judge (JPSC) Exam
3
Stages of selection: Preliminary (objective), Mains (descriptive) and viva-voce
JPSC Civil Judge advertisement
100 marks / 2 hours
Preliminary Entrance Test format (objective, qualifying only)
JPSC / Jharkhand High Court
400 marks
Main Examination total across four descriptive papers of 100 marks each
JPSC Civil Judge syllabus
1 July 2024
Date BNS, BNSS and BSA replaced the IPC, CrPC and Indian Evidence Act
Government of India notification
15 times
Multiple of vacancies called for the Main Examination after prelims
JPSC Civil Judge advertisement
Ranchi
Seat of the High Court of Jharkhand controlling the subordinate judiciary
High Court of Jharkhand
The JPSC Civil Judge (Junior Division) selection has three stages. The Preliminary Entrance Test is an objective MCQ paper of 100 marks lasting 2 hours and is purely qualifying. The Mains has four descriptive papers totalling 400 marks, followed by a 100-mark viva-voce. Core subjects include CPC, the new BNS/BNSS/BSA codes (effective 1 July 2024), Contract, Evidence, Constitutional law and Jharkhand's CNT 1908 and SPT 1949 tenancy laws.
Sample Jharkhand Civil Judge (JPSC) Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to test your Jharkhand Civil Judge (JPSC) exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS), which provision now defines and punishes the offence of murder, replacing Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
A.Section 101 BNS
B.Section 105 BNS
C.Section 300 BNS
D.Section 103 BNS
Explanation: Murder is defined in Section 100 BNS and punished under Section 103 BNS (life imprisonment or death). This replaced IPC Section 302. The definition formerly in IPC Section 300 is now in BNS Section 100.
2The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, came into force replacing the Indian Penal Code, 1860, with effect from which date?
A.26 January 2024
B.1 April 2024
C.1 July 2024
D.15 August 2024
Explanation: The three new criminal laws — the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 — came into force on 1 July 2024, replacing the IPC, CrPC and Indian Evidence Act respectively.
3A and B agree that A shall pay B Rs. 1,000 if a certain ship returns within a year. The ship had already sunk, unknown to both, when the agreement was made. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the agreement is:
A.A contingent contract enforceable on the ship's return
B.Voidable at B's option
C.A wagering agreement and therefore void
D.Void as it is impossible of performance
Explanation: Under Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement to do an act impossible in itself is void. Since the ship had already sunk, performance was impossible from inception, making the agreement void ab initio.
4Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the principle that bars the trial of a suit in which the matter directly and substantially in issue has been directly and substantially in issue in a former suit between the same parties and finally decided is known as:
A.Res sub judice
B.Estoppel
C.Res judicata
D.Constructive res judicata
Explanation: Section 11 CPC embodies the doctrine of res judicata, which prevents re-litigation of a matter already finally decided between the same parties by a competent court. It promotes finality of litigation.
5Under the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act, 1908, which applies to most districts of Jharkhand, the transfer of land held by a member of the Scheduled Tribes to a non-tribal is:
A.Permitted freely
B.Permitted only with the consent of the Gram Sabha
C.Generally prohibited and restricted to protect tribal land
D.Permitted only after registration with the High Court
Explanation: The Chotanagpur Tenancy Act, 1908, was enacted primarily to protect tribal land from alienation. It generally prohibits transfer of land held by Scheduled Tribe members to non-tribals, with limited exceptions, to prevent dispossession of tribals.
6Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA), which replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the burden of proving that a person is alive who has not been heard of for seven years by those who would naturally have heard of him lies on:
A.The person who affirms he is dead
B.The court suo motu
C.Neither party as it is presumed
D.The person who affirms he is alive
Explanation: Under the BSA (corresponding to Section 108 of the old Evidence Act), when a person has not been heard of for seven years by those who would naturally have heard of him, the burden of proving that he is alive shifts to the person who affirms it. The presumption of death is raised.
7Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS), which replaced the CrPC, the maximum period for completion of investigation and a mandatory time limit for filing the police report is emphasised. The First Information Report provision corresponds to which earlier CrPC section?
A.Section 154 CrPC
B.Section 161 CrPC
C.Section 173 CrPC
D.Section 41 CrPC
Explanation: The FIR provision under the BNSS corresponds to Section 154 of the old CrPC. Under the BNSS this is now Section 173, which provides for registration of information relating to cognizable offences, including provisions for zero FIR and electronic registration.
8Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a transfer of property to take effect on the happening of a specified uncertain event is called a:
A.Vested interest
B.Conditional limitation
C.Spes successionis
D.Contingent interest
Explanation: Section 21 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, defines a contingent interest as one that takes effect only on the happening of a specified uncertain event or its not happening. Until then, the interest is contingent and not vested.
9Article 21 of the Constitution of India guarantees protection of life and personal liberty. In which landmark case did the Supreme Court hold that the right to privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21?
A.Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
B.A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
C.K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
D.Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Explanation: In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court unanimously held that the right to privacy is a fundamental right intrinsic to the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and to other fundamental rights.
10Under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, an offence of dishonour of cheque is committed only if, among other conditions, the payee makes a demand for payment by notice in writing within:
A.15 days of receiving information of dishonour
B.7 days of receiving information of dishonour
C.45 days of receiving information of dishonour
D.30 days of receiving information of dishonour
Explanation: Under the proviso to Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the payee must give written notice demanding payment within 30 days of receiving information from the bank regarding return of the cheque as unpaid. The drawer then has 15 days to pay before the offence is complete.
About the Jharkhand Civil Judge (JPSC) Practice Questions
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