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100+ Free HP Higher Judicial Service (District Judge) Practice Questions

Himachal Pradesh Higher Judicial Service Exam (District Judge) practice questions are available now; exam metadata is being verified.

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: HP Higher Judicial Service (District Judge) Exam

7 years

Minimum Bar practice required for direct recruitment as District Judge

Article 233(2), Constitution of India

3 papers

Objective preliminary papers: Civil Law I, Civil Law II and Criminal Law (100 marks each)

HP Judicial Service exam scheme

1 July 2024

Date BNS, BNSS and BSA replaced the IPC, CrPC and Evidence Act

Government of India notifications, 2024

No negative marking

Marking scheme for the objective preliminary stage

HP Judiciary preliminary exam pattern

Shimla

Seat of the High Court of Himachal Pradesh conducting the recruitment

High Court of Himachal Pradesh

Section 118

HP Tenancy and Land Reforms Act 1972 provision restricting land transfer to non-agriculturists

HP Tenancy and Land Reforms Act, 1972

HP HJS is the High Court of Himachal Pradesh's direct-recruitment exam for District Judges, open to advocates with 7+ years of practice under Article 233(2). The prelims has three objective papers — Civil Law I, Civil Law II and Criminal Law — of 100 marks each (no negative marking), and the syllabus now tests the BNS 2023, BNSS 2023 and BSA 2023 (which replaced the IPC, CrPC and Evidence Act on 1 July 2024) alongside CPC, Contract, Transfer of Property and HP state laws. Final merit is decided by the mains and viva, with the High Court at Shimla as the seat.

Sample HP Higher Judicial Service (District Judge) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your HP Higher Judicial Service (District Judge) exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1The basic structure doctrine, which limits Parliament's amending power under Article 368, was first authoritatively laid down by the Supreme Court in:
A.Golak Nath v. State of Punjab (1967)
B.Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
C.Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)
D.Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975)
Explanation: In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), a 13-judge bench held 7-6 that while Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot alter or destroy its 'basic structure'. This remains the foundational authority on the doctrine.
2Under Article 233 of the Constitution, the appointment of District Judges in a State is made by:
A.The State Public Service Commission alone
B.The Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court
C.The Chief Justice of India
D.The President of India on the advice of the Council of Ministers
Explanation: Article 233(1) provides that appointments of persons to be, and the posting and promotion of, District Judges in any State shall be made by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to that State.
3A person who has been an advocate for not less than seven years is eligible to be appointed a District Judge by direct recruitment. This minimum period of practice is prescribed by:
A.Article 236 of the Constitution
B.Article 124 of the Constitution
C.Article 217 of the Constitution
D.Article 233(2) of the Constitution
Explanation: Article 233(2) provides that a person not already in the service of the Union or the State is eligible to be appointed a District Judge only if he has been an advocate or a pleader for not less than seven years and is recommended by the High Court. This underpins direct recruitment to the Higher Judicial Service.
4Which writ is most appropriate to challenge the legality of a person's detention and secure their release?
A.Habeas Corpus
B.Certiorari
C.Mandamus
D.Quo Warranto
Explanation: Habeas corpus ('you shall have the body') is issued to produce a detained person before the court and to test the legality of the detention; if the detention is unlawful, the person is released. It is available under Articles 32 and 226.
5The expanded interpretation of the right to life under Article 21 to include the right to live with human dignity and a fair procedure was authoritatively established in:
A.State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (1951)
B.A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950)
C.Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)
D.ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976)
Explanation: Maneka Gandhi (1978) held that 'procedure established by law' under Article 21 must be just, fair and reasonable, and read Articles 14, 19 and 21 together as a 'golden triangle', overruling the narrow approach in A.K. Gopalan.
6The doctrine of 'pith and substance' is primarily used to:
A.Interpret fundamental rights in light of directive principles
B.Sever the valid part of a statute from the invalid part
C.Determine the true nature of legislation when there is an apparent conflict of legislative competence between the Union and States
D.Resolve conflicts between two Central laws
Explanation: The doctrine of pith and substance is applied to ascertain the true character of a law to determine whether it falls within a legislature's competence under the relevant List, even if it incidentally encroaches on a field reserved for the other legislature.
7Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of murder is now punishable under:
A.Section 103 BNS
B.Section 300 BNS
C.Section 302 BNS
D.Section 101 BNS
Explanation: The BNS, 2023, which replaced the IPC with effect from 1 July 2024, punishes murder under Section 103 (corresponding to the former Section 302 IPC). Culpable homicide and its punishment are dealt with under Sections 100-101 BNS.
8Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence formerly known as cheating under Section 420 IPC is now contained in:
A.Section 420 BNS
B.Section 316 BNS
C.Section 318 BNS
D.Section 415 BNS
Explanation: Cheating and dishonestly inducing delivery of property is now dealt with under Section 318 of the BNS, 2023 (the former Section 420 IPC). The general definition of cheating that was Section 415 IPC corresponds to Section 318(1)/(2) BNS.
9A new offence introduced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 that was not a distinct codified offence in the IPC is:
A.Organised crime and terrorism as substantive offences
B.Adultery
C.Defamation
D.Sedition
Explanation: The BNS, 2023 newly codifies organised crime (Section 111) and terrorist acts (Section 113) as substantive offences within the general penal code, which the IPC did not separately contain. The BNS also dropped sedition in its old form, replacing it with Section 152 (acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India).
10Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which of the following is NOT one of the recognised general exceptions excluding criminal liability?
A.Act of a child under seven years of age
B.Act done by consent of a person below twelve years through a guardian for benefit
C.Act done in good faith for the benefit of a person without consent in an emergency
D.Promise to commit an offence induced by reward
Explanation: A promise to commit an offence in return for a reward is not a general exception; it would itself attract criminal liability. The BNS retains the IPC's general exceptions such as infancy (act of a child under seven), acts done for benefit with consent or in good faith without consent in emergencies, mistake of fact, necessity, and private defence.

About the HP Higher Judicial Service (District Judge) Practice Questions

Verified exam format metadata for Himachal Pradesh Higher Judicial Service Exam (District Judge) is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.