All Practice Exams
100+ Free Título de Especialista em Anestesiologia (SBA/AMB) Practice Questions
TEA — Título de Especialista em Anestesiologia (Sociedade Brasileira de Anestesiologia / AMB) practice questions are available now; exam metadata is being verified.
✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately
100+ Questions
100% Free
Loading practice questions...
Same family resources
Explore More Brazilian Medical Association Specialty Title Concursos (AMB / Título de Especialista)
Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.
2026 Statistics
Key Facts: Título de Especialista em Anestesiologia (SBA/AMB) Exam
100 Questions
Written Objective Exam Items
Edital Oficial Concurso TEA / SBA-AMB
60% (6.0/10.0)
Minimum Passing Grade
Regulamento SBA para Obtenção do TEA
2 Phases
Written (Teórica) + Practical/Oral (Teórico-Prática)
Sociedade Brasileira de Anestesiologia
RQE / CFM
Official Specialist Registration in Brazil
Conselho Federal de Medicina
Resolução CFM 2.174/2017
Governing Norm for Brazilian Anesthetic Practice
Conselho Federal de Medicina
3 Years
SBA CET Residency Training Duration
Comissão de Ensino e Treinamento (CET/SBA)
20% Lipid Emulsion
Standard First-Line Antidote for LAST
SBA / ASRA LAST Resuscitation Guidelines
Dantrolene 2.5 mg/kg
Initial Bolus for Malignant Hyperthermia
SBA / Malignant Hyperthermia Association
The Título de Especialista em Anestesiologia (TEA) is the Brazilian board certification in Anesthesiology awarded by SBA/AMB. The exam comprises a 100-question written objective paper (Prova Teórica) and an oral/practical clinical examination (Prova Teórico-Prática) requiring a 60% minimum passing score. It evaluates core domains across anesthetic pharmacology, cardiopulmonary physiology, difficult airway algorithms, ultrasound regional anesthesia, subspecialty anesthesia, hemodynamic monitoring, pain medicine, malignant hyperthermia, and perioperative safety. This bank provides 100 fully rationalized English-language questions.
Sample Título de Especialista em Anestesiologia (SBA/AMB) Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to test your Título de Especialista em Anestesiologia (SBA/AMB) exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1Which of the following describes the primary molecular mechanism of action and pharmacokinetic profile of propofol during the induction of general anesthesia?
A.Competitive antagonism of central NMDA receptors leading to dissociative anesthesia, with exclusive renal excretion.
B.Positive allosteric modulation and direct activation of GABA-A receptor beta-subunits, resulting in increased chloride conductance, with a systemic clearance that exceeds hepatic blood flow.
C.Selective agonism of central alpha-2 adrenergic receptors in the locus coeruleus, accompanied by active glucuronide metabolites that prolong sedation.
D.Irreversible blockade of voltage-gated sodium channels in the reticular activating system, with zero-order elimination kinetics.
Explanation: Propofol primarily acts by binding to specific transmembrane sites on the beta-subunit of the GABA-A receptor, enhancing inward chloride currents and producing hyperpolarization of postsynaptic neurons. Its termination of action after a single bolus is driven by rapid redistribution from vessel-rich tissues to muscle and fat, while its total body clearance exceeds hepatic blood flow (1.5–2.2 L/min), indicating significant extrahepatic metabolism primarily in the lungs and kidneys.
2When comparing the context-sensitive half-times (CSHT) of intravenous opioids following a continuous infusion lasting longer than 4 hours, which opioid maintains an essentially constant CSHT regardless of infusion duration?
A.Fentanyl
B.Alfentanil
C.Remifentanil
D.Sufentanil
Explanation: Remifentanil possesses a unique ester linkage that undergoes rapid hydrolysis by non-specific blood and tissue esterases. Consequently, its context-sensitive half-time remains exceptionally short and constant at approximately 3 to 4 minutes, regardless of whether the infusion runs for 30 minutes or 8 hours.
3A patient undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy receives rocuronium (0.6 mg/kg). At the end of surgery, quantitative neuromuscular monitoring via acceleromyography reveals 2 twitches on Train-of-Four (TOF) stimulation at the adductor pollicis. According to SBA/AMB guidelines, what is the appropriate dose of sugammadex required for complete reversal?
A.2.0 mg/kg based on actual body weight
B.4.0 mg/kg based on ideal body weight
C.16.0 mg/kg based on lean body weight
D.0.5 mg/kg based on total body weight
Explanation: Sugammadex dosing is determined by the depth of neuromuscular block confirmed by quantitative monitoring: moderate block (reappearance of T2 on TOF stimulation) requires 2.0 mg/kg of sugammadex based on actual body weight. Deep block (1–2 post-tetanic counts with 0 twitches on TOF) requires 4.0 mg/kg, while immediate rescue reversal after high-dose rocuronium (1.2 mg/kg) requires 16.0 mg/kg.
4Which of the following volatile anesthetics has the lowest blood:gas partition coefficient, providing the fastest alveolar-to-blood equilibration and the most rapid emergence from general anesthesia?
A.Isoflurane (1.40)
B.Halothane (2.54)
C.Sevoflurane (0.65)
D.Desflurane (0.42)
Explanation: Desflurane has a blood:gas partition coefficient of approximately 0.42 at 37°C, which is lower than that of sevoflurane (0.65), isoflurane (1.40), and halothane (2.54). Lower solubility in blood translates directly to faster rise of alveolar anesthetic partial pressure (FA/FI ratio) during induction and more rapid elimination during emergence.
5What is the biochemical mechanism responsible for the transient adrenocortical suppression observed following a single induction dose of etomidate?
A.Reversible concentration-dependent inhibition of the mitochondrial enzyme 11-beta-hydroxylase (CYP11B1)
B.Competitive antagonism of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) receptors on the adrenal cortex
C.Direct necrotic cytotoxicity to the zona fasciculata cells of the adrenal gland
D.Irreversible blockade of cholesterol side-chain cleavage enzyme (CYP11A1)
Explanation: Etomidate contains an imidazole ring that binds to cytochrome P450 enzymes, causing potent and reversible dose-dependent inhibition of 11-beta-hydroxylase (CYP11B1), the enzyme that converts 11-deoxycortisol to cortisol and 11-deoxycorticosterone to corticosterone. This suppression can persist for 6 to 24 hours following a single induction bolus, blunting the endogenous cortisol stress response.
6A critically ill trauma patient in severe hemorrhagic shock with profound endogenous catecholamine depletion receives ketamine (2 mg/kg IV) for rapid sequence intubation. What hemodynamic response is most likely to occur?
A.Significant hypertension and tachycardia due to stimulation of the central vasomotor center.
B.Acute systemic hypotension and myocardial depression because the direct negative inotropic effect is unmasked in the absence of sympathetic reserve.
C.No hemodynamic change because ketamine does not interact with the cardiovascular system.
D.Marked systemic vasodilation mediated by endothelial nitric oxide release.
Explanation: Ketamine possesses intrinsic negative inotropic properties on isolated cardiac myocytes. In healthy patients, this direct depressant effect is overridden by central sympathetic stimulation and inhibition of neuronal norepinephrine reuptake, resulting in increased blood pressure and heart rate. In critically ill, catecholamine-depleted patients, the sympathetic response cannot be mounted, unmasking direct myocardial depression and leading to severe hypotension.
7In which of the following clinical scenarios is the administration of succinylcholine strictly contraindicated due to the risk of life-threatening hyperkalemic cardiac arrest?
A.A healthy 25-year-old patient undergoing emergency appendectomy with a full stomach.
B.A patient with acute asthma exacerbation requiring emergency endotracheal intubation.
C.A patient with a complete spinal cord transection at T4 sustained 3 weeks ago.
D.A patient with chronic stable hypertension controlled on amlodipine.
Explanation: Following upper or lower motor neuron denervation (e.g., spinal cord injury, stroke), extensive burns (>24–48 hours post-injury), severe crush injuries, or muscular dystrophies, extrajunctional nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (fetal alpha-2-beta-gamma-delta and alpha-7 homopentameric isoforms) proliferate across the entire muscle sarcolemma. Succinylcholine causes prolonged open-channel opening of these extrajunctional receptors, releasing massive amounts of intracellular potassium into the circulation, frequently causing fatal hyperkalemia and ventricular fibrillation.
8Which statement accurately describes the pharmacological profile and receptor selectivity of dexmedetomidine?
A.It is a highly selective alpha-2 adrenergic agonist (alpha-2:alpha-1 ratio of ~1620:1) that produces 'cooperative sedation' by acting on the locus coeruleus with minimal respiratory depression.
B.It is a non-selective alpha-1 and alpha-2 adrenergic antagonist that induces deep unconsciousness and profound respiratory depression.
C.It is an allosteric GABA-A receptor agonist that acts primarily on the thalamic reticular nucleus to produce hypnosis.
D.It is a centrally acting anticholinergic agent that suppresses parasympathetic outflow to the sinoatrial node.
Explanation: Dexmedetomidine is a potent, highly selective alpha-2 adrenergic agonist with an alpha-2:alpha-1 selectivity ratio of approximately 1620:1 (compared to 220:1 for clonidine). By stimulating presynaptic alpha-2 receptors in the locus coeruleus, it inhibits norepinephrine release, producing a unique state of 'cooperative' or 'conscious' sedation mimicking natural non-REM sleep while preserving ventilatory drive and upper airway tone.
9What is the primary metabolic and elimination pathway of cisatracurium, making it the neuromuscular blocking agent of choice in patients with combined severe hepatic and renal failure?
A.Hepatic cytochrome P450 CYP3A4 oxidation followed by biliary excretion
B.Plasma pseudocholinesterase (butyrylcholinesterase) hydrolysis
C.Direct glomerular filtration and unchanged active tubular secretion in the kidneys
D.Organ-independent Hofmann elimination at physiological pH and temperature
Explanation: Cisatracurium (the 1R-cis, 1'R-cis stereoisomer of atracurium) undergoes organ-independent Hofmann elimination—a non-enzymatic spontaneous chemical breakdown occurring at physiological body temperature and pH. A minor portion undergoes non-specific ester hydrolysis. Because neither hepatic nor renal function is required for clearance, its duration of action and recovery profile are virtually unaffected by end-stage renal or hepatic disease.
10Which of the following physiological or pharmacological factors is known to increase the Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC) of volatile anesthetics?
A.Hypothermia and advanced age
B.Hypernatremia and acute administration of dextroamphetamine
C.Pregnancy and acute alcohol intoxication
D.Co-administration of intravenous opioids and alpha-2 agonists
Explanation: Factors that increase central nervous system excitability or neurotransmitter levels increase MAC, including hypernatremia, acute central stimulant use (e.g., amphetamines, ephedrine, cocaine), chronic alcohol abuse, hyperthermia, and red hair phenotype (MC1R gene mutation).
About the Título de Especialista em Anestesiologia (SBA/AMB) Practice Questions
Verified exam format metadata for TEA — Título de Especialista em Anestesiologia (Sociedade Brasileira de Anestesiologia / AMB) is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.