100+ Free ABPS Ophthalmology Practice Questions

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Pass rates for ABPS Board of Ophthalmology candidates are not publicly published; first-time pass rates are historically high for residency-trained ophthalmologists Pass Rate

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Question 1

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A 68-year-old with a 25-pack-year smoking history is diagnosed with intermediate dry AMD with bilateral large drusen. Per AREDS2, which formulation is recommended?

Original AREDS formula with beta-carotene

AREDS2 with lutein/zeaxanthin replacing beta-carotene

Vitamin C and zinc only

Omega-3 fatty acids alone

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABPS Ophthalmology Exam

200

Written Exam MCQ Items

ABPS Board of Ophthalmology written examination

~4 hr

Written Exam Time

Computer-based testing

~16%

Retina/Vitreous Weight

Largest single domain on the ABPS Ophthalmology blueprint

~$2,000-$2,500

2026 Written Exam Fee

ABPS (verify current schedule)

Residency

Required Training

Accredited ophthalmology residency (ACGME/AOA or equivalent)

22.5 mmHg

OHTS High-Risk IOP Cutoff

Ocular Hypertension Treatment Study

The ABPS Board of Ophthalmology written examination is a ~200-item, ~4-hour computer-based test for residency-trained ophthalmologists pursuing ABPS certification. The blueprint emphasizes Retina/Vitreous (~16%), Cornea (~12%), Glaucoma (~12%), Cataract/Refractive (~12%), Neuro-Ophthalmology (~9%), Pediatrics/Strabismus (~9%), Uveitis (~7%), Oculoplastics (~7%), Optics (~6%), Trauma (~5%), Oncology (~3%), and Systemic Disease (~2%). The 2026 fee is approximately $2,000-$2,500; candidates must complete an accredited ophthalmology residency.

Sample ABPS Ophthalmology Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABPS Ophthalmology exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 68-year-old with a 25-pack-year smoking history is diagnosed with intermediate dry AMD with bilateral large drusen. Per AREDS2, which formulation is recommended?

A.Original AREDS formula with beta-carotene

B.AREDS2 with lutein/zeaxanthin replacing beta-carotene

C.Vitamin C and zinc only

D.Omega-3 fatty acids alone

Explanation: AREDS2 demonstrated that lutein 10 mg + zeaxanthin 2 mg can safely replace beta-carotene, which increased lung cancer risk in current and former smokers. The recommended AREDS2 formula is vitamin C 500 mg, vitamin E 400 IU, zinc 80 mg (or 25 mg), copper 2 mg, and lutein/zeaxanthin. It reduces 5-year progression to advanced AMD by ~25% in intermediate dry AMD.

2Which DRCR Retina Network protocol established that aflibercept was superior to bevacizumab and ranibizumab in patients with diabetic macular edema and baseline visual acuity of 20/50 or worse?

A.Protocol I

B.Protocol T

C.Protocol V

D.Protocol AC

Explanation: DRCR.net Protocol T compared aflibercept, bevacizumab, and ranibizumab for DME. At 1 year, aflibercept was superior in eyes with baseline VA of 20/50 or worse; the three agents were similar in eyes with milder VA loss (20/32-20/40). Protocol I tested ranibizumab + laser, Protocol V observation in non-center-involving DME, and Protocol AC anti-VEGF vs PRP for low-risk PDR.

3A 55-year-old presents with a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) in the right eye. Which condition is MOST consistent with this finding?

A.Dense nuclear cataract

B.Right optic neuritis

C.High myopia

D.Posterior subcapsular cataract

Explanation: An RAPD indicates asymmetric optic nerve dysfunction or extensive unilateral retinal disease. Optic neuritis classically produces an RAPD in the affected eye. Cataracts — even dense ones — and refractive errors do NOT cause an RAPD because they affect light entering the eye but not the optic nerve's relative input.

4The LiGHT trial provided level-1 evidence for which intervention as first-line therapy in newly diagnosed primary open-angle glaucoma and ocular hypertension?

A.Trabeculectomy with mitomycin C

B.Selective laser trabeculoplasty (SLT)

C.Tube shunt implantation

D.Argon laser trabeculoplasty (ALT)

Explanation: The LiGHT trial (Lancet 2019, with extension data) showed that primary SLT achieved equivalent or better IOP control versus medical therapy as first-line treatment for POAG and OHT, with fewer eyes requiring incisional surgery and lower lifetime cost. SLT is now widely accepted as a reasonable first-line option per AAO Preferred Practice Pattern guidance.

5A patient with primary angle-closure suspect (PACS) has appositional iridotrabecular contact on gonioscopy without elevated IOP, peripheral anterior synechiae, or optic neuropathy. What is the recommended treatment?

A.Observation only

B.Topical prostaglandin analog

C.Laser peripheral iridotomy (LPI)

D.Trabeculectomy

Explanation: Per ISGEO classification, PACS is appositional iridotrabecular contact without PAS, elevated IOP, or optic nerve damage. Standard prophylactic treatment is laser peripheral iridotomy (LPI) to relieve pupillary block and prevent progression to PAC or PACG. The ZAP trial (2019) showed LPI reduces but does not eliminate progression risk; observation may be appropriate in some lower-risk PACS, but LPI remains first-line.

6A 72-year-old presents with sudden monocular vision loss, jaw claudication, scalp tenderness, and ESR of 95. Funduscopy shows a pale, swollen optic disc. What is the immediate next step?

A.Schedule outpatient temporal artery biopsy in 4 weeks

B.Start IV high-dose methylprednisolone immediately and arrange biopsy

C.Order MRI of the orbits before starting treatment

D.Begin oral prednisone 20 mg daily and observe

Explanation: This is classic giant cell arteritis (GCA) presenting as arteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (AAION). Treatment with high-dose IV methylprednisolone (typically 1 g/day for 3 days, then oral) must begin immediately to prevent fellow-eye involvement — biopsy can be performed within 1-2 weeks without affecting yield. Delaying treatment risks bilateral blindness.

7Which IOL formula is generally most accurate across a wide range of axial lengths and is widely used as a default in modern cataract surgery?

A.SRK II

B.Hoffer Q

C.Barrett Universal II

D.Holladay 1

Explanation: Barrett Universal II is a fifth-generation formula with strong accuracy across short, average, and long axial lengths. Hill-RBF (radial basis function, AI-based) is also highly accurate, particularly for extreme axial lengths. Older formulas like SRK II, Hoffer Q (best for short eyes <22 mm), and Holladay 1 (best for average eyes) remain useful but Barrett is preferred as a general default.

8Which pathogen is the MOST common cause of bacterial keratitis in contact lens wearers?

A.Streptococcus pneumoniae

B.Staphylococcus aureus

C.Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D.Moraxella catarrhalis

Explanation: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common cause of bacterial keratitis in soft contact lens wearers. It produces aggressive corneal melting via proteases and a characteristic ring infiltrate. Empiric therapy is fortified tobramycin/gentamicin + cefazolin or fluoroquinolone monotherapy. Acanthamoeba should be considered if pain is out of proportion to findings or if the patient swims/showers in lenses.

9A 6-year-old with refractive amblyopia (BCVA 20/80 OD) is being treated with patching. Per PEDIG/ATS results, how many hours of daily patching are typically prescribed for moderate amblyopia?

A.30 minutes per day

B.2 hours per day

C.Full-time patching (all waking hours)

D.Patching is not recommended for refractive amblyopia

Explanation: ATS2A (Amblyopia Treatment Study) showed that 2 hours of daily patching produced equivalent visual improvement to 6 hours in moderate amblyopia (20/40 to 20/80). For severe amblyopia (20/100 to 20/400), 6 hours was equivalent to full-time patching. Atropine penalization once daily on weekends is a comparable alternative for moderate amblyopia.

10Which finding on funduscopy is MOST characteristic of central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO)?

A.Diffuse intraretinal hemorrhages and dilated tortuous veins

B.Retinal whitening with a cherry-red spot at the macula

C.Cotton-wool spots and cup-disc enlargement

D.Subretinal fluid with shifting position

Explanation: CRAO presents with sudden painless monocular vision loss and characteristic diffuse retinal whitening (ischemic edema of the inner retina) with a cherry-red spot at the fovea — the underlying choroidal circulation perfuses the thin foveolar retina, preserving its red color against the surrounding white edema. CRAO is a stroke-equivalent; emergent stroke workup is indicated.

About the ABPS Ophthalmology Exam

The ABPS Board of Ophthalmology certification examination, administered by the American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS), validates the knowledge required for practice as an eye surgeon and medical ophthalmologist. The written examination spans cornea and external disease, glaucoma, cataract and refractive surgery, retina and vitreous (diabetic retinopathy, AMD, retinal detachment), uveitis, neuro-ophthalmology, pediatric ophthalmology and strabismus, oculoplastics and orbit, refraction and optics, ocular trauma, ocular oncology, and systemic disease and the eye. Eligibility requires an MD/DO with unrestricted license and completion of an accredited ophthalmology residency. Successful written candidates progress to the oral component for full board certification.

Questions

200 scored questions

Time Limit

~4 hours CBT

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled score set by the ABPS Board of Ophthalmology (modified Angoff standard)

Exam Fee

~$2,000-$2,500 examination fee (ABPS 2026 — verify current schedule) (American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS) — Board of Ophthalmology)

ABPS Ophthalmology Exam Content Outline

~16%

Retina & Vitreous

Diabetic retinopathy (NPDR/PDR, ETDRS severity, DRCR.net Protocol T/I/V/AC), diabetic macular edema (anti-VEGF, focal laser), age-related macular degeneration (dry/wet, AREDS2 supplements, anti-VEGF — ranibizumab/aflibercept/faricimab/pegcetacoplan for geographic atrophy), retinal vein occlusions (CRVO/BRVO, CRUISE/BRAVO/COPERNICUS), retinal artery occlusion, retinal detachment (rhegmatogenous/tractional/exudative — pneumatic retinopexy/scleral buckle/PPV), macular hole and epiretinal membrane, central serous chorioretinopathy, retinitis pigmentosa, ROP (ETROP/BEAT-ROP), endophthalmitis (EVS).

~12%

Cornea & External Disease

Corneal anatomy, dry eye (TFOS DEWS II), blepharitis and MGD, infectious keratitis (bacterial/HSV per HEDS/fungal/Acanthamoeba), herpes zoster ophthalmicus, corneal dystrophies (Fuchs endothelial, map-dot-fingerprint, lattice, granular, macular), keratoconus and corneal crosslinking, pterygium, corneal transplantation (PK, DSAEK, DMEK), ocular surface squamous neoplasia, conjunctivitis, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, contact lens-related keratitis.

~12%

Glaucoma

Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG), normal-tension glaucoma, primary angle-closure disease (ISGEO PACS/PAC/PACG), secondary glaucomas (pigmentary, pseudoexfoliative, neovascular, uveitic, steroid-induced), congenital and juvenile glaucoma, optic disc and OCT RNFL, Humphrey visual fields, gonioscopy, medical therapy (prostaglandins, beta-blockers, alpha agonists, CAIs, rho-kinase inhibitors), SLT (LiGHT trial), trabeculectomy, tube shunts, MIGS, OHTS and EMGT/UKGTS evidence.

~12%

Cataract & Refractive Surgery

Lens anatomy, cataract types (cortical, nuclear, PSC), pediatric cataract, biometry (IOL Master, immersion ultrasound), IOL formulas (Barrett Universal II, Hill-RBF, Haigis), monofocal/toric/multifocal/EDOF/light-adjustable IOLs, phacoemulsification, FLACS, intraoperative complications (PCR, dropped nucleus, suprachoroidal hemorrhage), endophthalmitis prophylaxis (intracameral cefuroxime/moxifloxacin per ESCRS), TASS, posterior capsule opacification and YAG, LASIK/PRK/SMILE refractive surgery, post-refractive ectasia.

~9%

Neuro-Ophthalmology

Pupillary disorders (RAPD, Adie tonic pupil, Horner syndrome, Argyll Robertson), optic neuritis (ONTT, MS/NMOSD/MOG-AD), idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIHTT), papilledema, NAION and arteritic AION (giant cell arteritis — temporal artery biopsy, ESR/CRP, IV methylprednisolone), traumatic and compressive optic neuropathy, pituitary lesions and chiasmal syndromes, visual field defects and lesion localization, cranial nerve palsies (III/IV/VI), myasthenia gravis, thyroid eye disease, nystagmus, INO.

~9%

Pediatric Ophthalmology & Strabismus

Amblyopia (refractive/strabismic/deprivation, ATS and PEDIG protocols), esotropia (infantile, accommodative, partial accommodative, sensory), exotropia (intermittent, sensory), DVD, A and V patterns, congenital cranial dysinnervation disorders, congenital nystagmus, leukocoria differential (retinoblastoma, PHPV/PFV, Coats, ROP, congenital cataract), retinopathy of prematurity screening and treatment, congenital glaucoma, NLDO and probing, congenital ptosis, child abuse / shaken baby, pediatric vision screening.

~7%

Uveitis

SUN Working Group classification (anatomic — anterior/intermediate/posterior/panuveitis; activity, severity, duration), HLA-B27 anterior uveitis, JIA-associated uveitis, sarcoidosis, syphilis, tuberculosis, Behçet disease, Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome, sympathetic ophthalmia, multifocal choroiditis, birdshot chorioretinopathy (HLA-A29), toxoplasmosis, CMV retinitis (HIV/AIDS), acute retinal necrosis (HSV/VZV), white dot syndromes, masquerade syndromes (PCNSL/PVRL), local steroids and systemic immunomodulatory therapy (methotrexate, mycophenolate, adalimumab/infliximab).

~7%

Oculoplastics & Orbit

Eyelid anatomy, ptosis (aponeurotic, myogenic, neurogenic, mechanical), entropion/ectropion, trichiasis, dermatochalasis, blepharospasm and hemifacial spasm, eyelid malignancies (BCC, SCC, sebaceous carcinoma, melanoma — Mohs micrographic surgery), benign lid lesions, lacrimal system (canaliculitis, dacryocystitis, NLDO, DCR), orbital cellulitis (preseptal vs orbital, Chandler classification), orbital floor and white-eyed blowout fractures, thyroid eye disease (Hertel, NOSPECS, teprotumumab), orbital tumors (cavernous hemangioma, schwannoma, lymphoma, rhabdomyosarcoma), enucleation/evisceration.

~6%

Refraction & Optics

Geometric and physical optics, vergence and lens power, Prentice's rule and prism, accommodation and presbyopia, retinoscopy, manifest and cycloplegic refraction, contact lens fitting (RGP, soft, scleral), spectacle prescriptions and induced prism, aniseikonia and anisometropia, low vision aids, IOL optics, wavefront aberrations and higher-order aberrations, Snellen and logMAR acuity, color vision (Ishihara, Farnsworth D-15), keratometry and corneal topography, axial length and refractive error.

~5%

Ocular Trauma

BETT classification (open globe, closed globe, contusion, laceration, IOFB), open-globe repair principles and timing, hyphema (sickle cell precautions, ALL trial of TXA), traumatic iritis, commotio retinae, choroidal rupture, retinal dialysis, optic nerve avulsion, lens dislocation, chemical burns (alkali penetrates deeper than acid; Roper-Hall/Dua classification, immediate copious irrigation to neutral pH), thermal burns, eyelid lacerations and canalicular involvement, orbital trauma, sympathetic ophthalmia risk after penetrating injury, post-traumatic endophthalmitis prophylaxis.

~3%

Ocular Oncology

Retinoblastoma (RB1 gene, leukocoria, IIRC group A-E, intravenous and intra-arterial chemotherapy, intravitreal melphalan, plaque brachytherapy, enucleation), uveal melanoma (choroidal/ciliary body/iris — COMS trial supports plaque brachytherapy for medium tumors, GEP class 1A/1B/2 prognosis), choroidal nevus and TFSOM-UHHD risk factors, choroidal hemangioma, conjunctival melanoma and PAM, ocular surface squamous neoplasia, intraocular lymphoma (PVRL/PCNSL — vitreous biopsy, IL-10:IL-6 ratio), metastatic choroidal tumors (breast, lung).

~2%

Systemic Disease & the Eye

Diabetes mellitus and ocular complications, hypertensive retinopathy, sickle cell retinopathy (Goldberg classification), HIV-related ocular disease, sarcoidosis, syphilis, tuberculosis, autoimmune disease (RA — peripheral ulcerative keratitis, SLE, ANCA-associated vasculitis, Sjögren syndrome), thyroid eye disease, hereditary retinal dystrophies (RP, Stargardt disease, Best vitelliform, choroideremia), phakomatoses (NF1/NF2, tuberous sclerosis, von Hippel-Lindau, Sturge-Weber), drug-induced ocular toxicity (hydroxychloroquine — AAO 2016 screening, ethambutol, amiodarone, tamoxifen, bisphosphonates).

How to Pass the ABPS Ophthalmology Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled score set by the ABPS Board of Ophthalmology (modified Angoff standard)
Exam length: 200 questions
Time limit: ~4 hours CBT
Exam fee: ~$2,000-$2,500 examination fee (ABPS 2026 — verify current schedule)

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABPS Ophthalmology Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master DRCR Retina Network protocols — they drive nearly every diabetic-eye-disease question. Protocol T (aflibercept superior at baseline VA 20/50 or worse), Protocol I (ranibizumab + prompt or deferred laser for DME), Protocol V (observation safe for non-center-involving DME with good VA), Protocol AC (intravitreal aflibercept non-inferior to PRP for low-risk PDR through 2 years). Pair with ETDRS severity scale and the 4-2-1 rule for severe NPDR.

2Know the current AMD landscape: AREDS2 (vitamin C, vitamin E, zinc, copper, lutein/zeaxanthin — NO beta-carotene for smokers) for intermediate dry AMD; anti-VEGF for wet AMD with faricimab (dual VEGF-A/Ang-2, extended dosing), aflibercept HD 8 mg, ranibizumab, brolucizumab (intraocular inflammation/RAO risk); pegcetacoplan and avacincaptad pegol approved for geographic atrophy — slow progression but no VA improvement.

3Glaucoma high-yield: LiGHT trial established SLT as reasonable first-line therapy for POAG/OHT; OHTS showed 22.5 mmHg cutoff with high-risk features (CCT, vertical C/D, PSD); EMGT showed each 1 mmHg of IOP lowering reduces progression risk ~10%. Memorize ISGEO classification (PACS — appositional contact only; PAC — adds PAS or elevated IOP; PACG — adds glaucomatous optic neuropathy). LPI for primary angle closure; remember plateau iris persists after LPI.

4Cataract pearls: Barrett Universal II is generally most accurate across axial lengths; Hill-RBF for short and long eyes; Haigis-L and Barrett True-K for post-refractive eyes. ESCRS endophthalmitis study supports intracameral cefuroxime (or moxifloxacin) prophylaxis. Recognize TASS (acute, sterile, hours-to-days, NO vitritis) vs endophthalmitis (4-7 days typical, vitritis, hypopyon, pain). Light-adjustable IOL (LAL) allows post-op refractive customization with UV light treatments.

5Neuro-ophthalmology must-knows: ONTT — IV methylprednisolone speeds recovery but does not improve final VA; check MRI (≥2 lesions = 70%+ MS at 15 years). Think GCA in any patient ≥50 with new headache, jaw claudication, scalp tenderness, vision loss, polymyalgia — start IV steroids BEFORE biopsy; ESR/CRP elevated, biopsy within 2 weeks. IIHTT showed acetazolamide + weight loss benefit for IIH with mild VF loss. RAPD = optic nerve or extensive retinal disease (NOT cataract or refractive error).

6Pediatric pearls: PEDIG/ATS — for moderate amblyopia (20/40 to 20/80), 2 hours of patching daily equals 6 hours; for severe (20/100 to 20/400), 6 hours equals full-time. Atropine 1× daily on weekends rivals patching. Leukocoria differential: retinoblastoma, PFV/PHPV, Coats disease, ROP, congenital cataract, toxocariasis. ROP screening: birth weight ≤1500 g OR gestational age ≤30 weeks. Treat type 1 ROP (zone I any stage with plus, zone I stage 3, zone II stage 2-3 with plus) with anti-VEGF or laser.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABPS Board of Ophthalmology Certification Examination?

The ABPS Board of Ophthalmology certification examination is administered by the American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS), a non-ABMS national medical specialty board. It validates the comprehensive knowledge expected of a board-certified ophthalmologist across cornea, glaucoma, cataract and refractive surgery, retina/vitreous, uveitis, neuro-ophthalmology, pediatric ophthalmology and strabismus, oculoplastics, optics, trauma, and ocular oncology. The credential supports hospital privileging, payer credentialing, and professional recognition for ophthalmologists who do not pursue or have not obtained ABMS American Board of Ophthalmology (ABO) certification.

Who is eligible to take the ABPS Ophthalmology exam?

Candidates must hold an MD, DO, or equivalent doctoral medical degree with a valid unrestricted medical license and have completed an accredited ophthalmology residency program (ACGME, AOA, or recognized international equivalent). Documentation of residency completion, application materials, and adherence to the ABPS Code of Ethics are required. Successful completion of the written examination is a prerequisite for the oral component required for full board certification.

What is the format of the exam?

The ABPS Ophthalmology written examination is a computer-based test of approximately 200 single-best-answer multiple-choice items administered over roughly 4 hours at a secure CBT center. Items are blueprinted to the ABPS Board of Ophthalmology content outline with the heaviest weighting on retina/vitreous (~16%), followed by cornea, glaucoma, and cataract/refractive surgery (~12% each), neuro-ophthalmology and pediatrics/strabismus (~9% each), uveitis and oculoplastics (~7% each), optics (~6%), trauma (~5%), oncology (~3%), and systemic disease (~2%). Successful written candidates proceed to the oral examination.

How much does the 2026 exam cost?

The 2026 ABPS Board of Ophthalmology examination fee is approximately $2,000-$2,500 — always verify the current schedule on the ABPS website. Candidates should also budget for review course materials such as the AAO Basic and Clinical Science Course (BCSC) series (~$800-$1,500), commercial review courses (~$1,500-$3,500), and ongoing Continuous Certification (CC) fees after passing. Cancellation and refund policies follow ABPS published policy with decreasing refunds as the exam date approaches.

When is the 2026 exam administered?

ABPS offers the Board of Ophthalmology written examination at scheduled administrations per the published ABPS schedule, typically with a separate oral examination cycle. Candidates schedule specific appointments after application approval. Exact 2026 dates and registration deadlines should be confirmed on the ABPS Board of Ophthalmology page.

How is the exam scored?

The ABPS Board of Ophthalmology uses criterion-referenced scaled scoring with a passing standard set by subject-matter experts using the modified Angoff method. A candidate's pass/fail result depends on performance relative to the fixed cut-score, not on a curve against other candidates. Score reports typically include subject-area feedback so candidates know their strongest and weakest content areas for retake preparation.

What are the highest-yield 2026 topics?

Highest-yield 2026 topics include DRCR Retina Network protocols for diabetic eye disease (Protocol T head-to-head anti-VEGF, Protocol AC for low-risk PDR, Protocol V for non-center-involving DME), AREDS2 supplementation and current AMD anti-VEGF agents (faricimab dual VEGF/Ang-2 inhibition, pegcetacoplan and avacincaptad pegol for geographic atrophy), MIGS evolution and the LiGHT trial supporting SLT as first-line POAG therapy, IOL formulas (Barrett Universal II, Hill-RBF), intracameral antibiotic prophylaxis for endophthalmitis (ESCRS), teprotumumab for thyroid eye disease, BETT trauma classification, hydroxychloroquine retinopathy screening (AAO 2016), and current retinoblastoma chemoreduction (intra-arterial and intravitreal melphalan).

How should I study for this exam?

Use a structured 6-12 month plan after residency. Anchor on the AAO Basic and Clinical Science Course (BCSC) 13-volume series and supplement with primary-source landmark trials (DRCR.net protocols, AREDS2, OHTS, EMGT, LiGHT, ETDRS, ATS/PEDIG, ONTT, IIHTT, COMS, ESCRS endophthalmitis study, EVS). Layer in commercial reviews (e.g., Wills Eye Manual, BCSC self-assessment, Ophthalmology Review Manual), then high-volume MCQ practice. Focus initially on heavy-weighted retina, anterior segment, and neuro-ophthalmology; close with optics, trauma, oncology, and systemic disease. Complete 2-3 timed full-length mock exams in the final 4-6 weeks.