PracticeBlogFlashcardsEspañol
All Practice Exams

100+ Free ABPS Emergency Medicine (BCEM) Practice Questions

Pass your ABPS Board of Certification in Emergency Medicine (BCEM) Examination exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately
Pass rate varies year to year; ABPS/BCEM does not publish exact statistics Pass Rate
100+ Questions
100% Free
1 / 100
Question 1
Score: 0/0

During adult cardiac arrest, what is the recommended chest compression rate per the 2025 AHA ACLS guidelines?

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABPS Emergency Medicine (BCEM) Exam

~250

Total MCQ Items

ABPS BCEM Emergency Medicine exam

~6 hr

Total Exam Time

Computer-based testing in two sessions

100-120

AHA 2025 CPR Compression Rate (per min)

AHA ACLS guidelines

1 hour

Surviving Sepsis Bundle Window

Surviving Sepsis Campaign Hour-1 bundle

24 hr

Maximum LVO Thrombectomy Window

DAWN/DEFUSE-3 expanded stroke window

~$2,500

2026 Exam Fee

ABPS/BCEM (verify current schedule)

The ABPS BCEM examination is a ~250-item, ~6-hour computer-based test administered by BCEM/ABPS for physicians practicing full-spectrum emergency medicine. Content is blueprinted across resuscitation/ACLS, shock and trauma, cardiovascular, respiratory, neurologic, GI/abdominal, toxicology, pediatric, OB/GYN, environmental, infectious disease (sepsis), procedural skills, and EM ultrasound. The 2026 examination fee is approximately $2,200-$2,500; BCEM eligibility requires an unrestricted license, completion of an accredited primary-care residency, and documented full-time EM practice experience.

Sample ABPS Emergency Medicine (BCEM) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABPS Emergency Medicine (BCEM) exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1During adult cardiac arrest, what is the recommended chest compression rate per the 2025 AHA ACLS guidelines?
A.60-80 per minute
B.80-100 per minute
C.100-120 per minute
D.120-140 per minute
Explanation: The AHA recommends a compression rate of 100-120 per minute for adult CPR, with a depth of at least 2 inches (5 cm) but no more than 2.4 inches (6 cm), full chest recoil, and minimization of interruptions. Rates faster than 120/min are associated with shallower compressions and worse outcomes.
2A 62-year-old man collapses in the ED waiting room. He has no pulse and the monitor shows ventricular fibrillation. After initiating high-quality CPR, what is the next priority intervention?
A.IV epinephrine 1 mg
B.Defibrillation at 200 J biphasic
C.Endotracheal intubation
D.Amiodarone 300 mg IV
Explanation: For witnessed VF/pVT arrest, the highest-priority intervention after initiating CPR is immediate defibrillation. Biphasic defibrillators typically use 120-200 J initially per manufacturer recommendations. Epinephrine and antiarrhythmics follow defibrillation attempts; airway management should not delay defibrillation in a shockable rhythm.
3Which of the following rhythms is NOT shockable during ACLS?
A.Ventricular fibrillation
B.Pulseless ventricular tachycardia
C.Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)
D.Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia without pulse
Explanation: Shockable rhythms in ACLS are ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia (pVT), including polymorphic VT without a pulse. PEA and asystole are non-shockable; treatment focuses on high-quality CPR, epinephrine, and identification/treatment of reversible causes (Hs and Ts).
4What is the recommended dose and frequency of epinephrine in adult cardiac arrest?
A.0.5 mg IV every 3-5 minutes
B.1 mg IV every 3-5 minutes
C.1 mg IV every 10 minutes
D.10 mg IV once
Explanation: Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO is given every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest. For non-shockable rhythms, give epinephrine as soon as feasible. For shockable rhythms, AHA recommends giving epinephrine after the second defibrillation attempt. Earlier administration in shockable rhythms has not improved outcomes.
5A patient with refractory ventricular fibrillation has received three defibrillations and one dose of epinephrine. What antiarrhythmic should be administered next per ACLS?
A.Lidocaine 1.5 mg/kg IV
B.Amiodarone 300 mg IV bolus
C.Procainamide 17 mg/kg IV
D.Magnesium sulfate 2 g IV
Explanation: For VF/pVT refractory to CPR, defibrillation, and epinephrine, the preferred antiarrhythmic is amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO bolus (with a second dose of 150 mg if needed). Lidocaine 1-1.5 mg/kg is an acceptable alternative. Magnesium is reserved for torsades de pointes or known/suspected hypomagnesemia.
6Which of the following is one of the 'Hs and Ts' reversible causes of cardiac arrest?
A.Hypertension
B.Hypoglycemia
C.Tension pneumothorax
D.Tachycardia
Explanation: The Hs and Ts are reversible causes of cardiac arrest: Hypovolemia, Hypoxia, Hydrogen ion (acidosis), Hypo/hyperkalemia, Hypothermia; Tension pneumothorax, Tamponade (cardiac), Toxins, Thrombosis (pulmonary), Thrombosis (coronary). Identifying and treating these causes is essential during PEA/asystole arrest.
7Following return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC), what is the recommended target temperature for targeted temperature management (TTM) per current AHA guidelines?
A.32-34°C strict cooling
B.Constant temperature between 32°C and 36°C with active prevention of fever
C.Active warming to 38°C
D.No temperature management is recommended
Explanation: Current AHA post-arrest care guidelines recommend selecting and maintaining a constant target temperature between 32°C and 36°C for at least 24 hours in adults who remain comatose after ROSC, followed by active prevention of fever (>37.7°C). The TTM2 trial showed no benefit of 33°C over 36°C with strict normothermia.
8A 45-year-old woman presents with crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm. ECG shows 3 mm ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most likely culprit artery?
A.Left anterior descending (LAD)
B.Left circumflex
C.Right coronary artery (RCA)
D.Left main
Explanation: ST elevation in inferior leads (II, III, aVF) typically reflects an inferior STEMI, most often caused by occlusion of the right coronary artery (RCA) in roughly 80% of cases. RCA-mediated infarcts may be complicated by RV infarction, AV nodal block, and bradycardia. ST elevation greater in lead III than II strongly suggests RCA over circumflex.
9A patient with inferior STEMI develops hypotension after sublingual nitroglycerin. What is the most likely explanation?
A.Anaphylaxis to nitroglycerin
B.Right ventricular infarction with preload dependence
C.Tension pneumothorax
D.Aortic dissection
Explanation: Inferior STEMI is associated with right ventricular (RV) infarction in up to 40% of cases. RV infarction is preload-dependent — nitrates (which reduce preload) can cause profound hypotension. Always check right-sided leads (V4R) in inferior STEMI; if RV infarction is present, avoid nitrates and give IV fluid boluses.
10Per ACC/AHA guidelines, what is the door-to-balloon time goal for primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) in STEMI?
A.Less than 30 minutes
B.Less than 60 minutes
C.Less than 90 minutes
D.Less than 180 minutes
Explanation: The ACC/AHA guidelines recommend a first medical contact-to-device (door-to-balloon) time of ≤90 minutes for STEMI patients presenting to PCI-capable hospitals. If the patient must be transferred, the goal is ≤120 minutes from first medical contact to PCI. If PCI cannot be achieved in this window, fibrinolysis within 30 minutes (door-to-needle) is preferred.

About the ABPS Emergency Medicine (BCEM) Exam

The ABPS Board of Certification in Emergency Medicine (BCEM) examination, administered by the American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS), validates competencies for physicians practicing full-spectrum emergency medicine. Content spans resuscitation and cardiac arrest (ACLS), shock and trauma management (ATLS, damage-control resuscitation, massive transfusion), cardiovascular emergencies (ACS/STEMI, dysrhythmias, aortic dissection, tamponade), respiratory emergencies (asthma, COPD, PE, ARDS, acute pulmonary edema), neurologic emergencies (stroke with extended thrombectomy windows, status epilepticus, SAH, ICH), GI/abdominal and renal emergencies, toxicology and antidotes, pediatric emergencies (PALS), OB/GYN emergencies (eclampsia, ectopic, postpartum hemorrhage), environmental emergencies (heat/cold, drowning, envenomation, CO/cyanide), infectious disease emergencies including sepsis (Surviving Sepsis Hour-1 bundle, Sepsis-3 criteria), procedural skills (RSI, central line, chest tube, thoracostomy), and emergency department point-of-care ultrasound (FAST, RUSH, lung, cardiac, vascular). Eligibility requires an MD/DO with valid unrestricted license and completion of an ACGME/AOA-accredited primary-care residency (e.g., FM, IM, peds) plus documented full-time emergency medicine practice experience as defined by BCEM (the BCEM pathway has historically served career EM physicians whose training pathway differs from the ABEM/ABOEM route).

Questions

250 scored questions

Time Limit

~6 hours CBT (two ~3-hour sessions)

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled score set by BCEM (modified Angoff standard)

Exam Fee

~$2,200-$2,500 examination fee (ABPS/BCEM 2026 — verify current schedule) (American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS) — Board of Certification in Emergency Medicine (BCEM))

ABPS Emergency Medicine (BCEM) Exam Content Outline

~12%

Resuscitation & Cardiac Arrest (ACLS)

AHA 2025 ACLS algorithms, high-quality CPR (rate 100-120/min, depth 5-6 cm, full recoil), shockable vs non-shockable rhythms, defibrillation (biphasic 120-200 J), epinephrine 1 mg q3-5 min, amiodarone 300 mg for refractory VF/pVT, Hs and Ts reversible causes, post-ROSC care with targeted temperature management 32-36°C (TTM2), waveform capnography to confirm intubation and assess perfusion, ECMO/ECPR for refractory arrest.

~12%

Shock & Trauma

ATLS 10th edition primary/secondary survey, hemorrhagic shock classes, damage-control resuscitation with 1:1:1 plasma:platelets:pRBCs (PROPPR), TXA 1 g within 3 hours (CRASH-2), shock index (HR/SBP >0.9 = high risk), tension pneumothorax needle decompression (4th-5th ICS anterior axillary line), Parkland formula for burns (4 mL × kg × %TBSA), warfarin reversal with 4F-PCC + vitamin K, andexanet alfa for Factor Xa inhibitor reversal, idarucizumab for dabigatran, ruptured AAA with permissive hypotension.

~12%

Cardiovascular Emergencies

STEMI recognition (door-to-balloon ≤90 min, door-to-needle ≤30 min if fibrinolysis), inferior MI with RV infarction (avoid nitrates), unstable narrow-complex tachycardia (synchronized cardioversion 120-200 J), SVT with adenosine 6→12 mg, atrial fibrillation rate vs rhythm control, hyperkalemia ECG progression and calcium gluconate first, aortic dissection with BP differential and widened mediastinum, cardiac tamponade (Beck's triad, electrical alternans, pericardiocentesis), bedside echo for tamponade and PE.

~10%

Respiratory Emergencies

Acute severe asthma (continuous albuterol/ipratropium, IV/PO steroids, IV magnesium), silent chest as warning of impending failure, COPD exacerbation with BiPAP for hypercapnic failure, PE risk stratification (Wells, PERC, CTPA, V/Q if contrast contraindicated), thrombolysis for massive PE, ARDS lung-protective ventilation (TV 4-6 mL/kg PBW, plateau ≤30, permissive hypercapnia), SCAPE/acute pulmonary edema with NIPPV + high-dose IV nitroglycerin + diuresis, sickle cell acute chest syndrome with exchange transfusion.

~10%

Neurologic Emergencies

Acute ischemic stroke with IV alteplase within 4.5 hours, mechanical thrombectomy up to 24 hours for LVO with favorable imaging (DAWN/DEFUSE-3), status epilepticus first-line benzodiazepines (lorazepam 4 mg IV, midazolam 10 mg IM — RAMPART), ESETT second-line equivalence (levetiracetam/fosphenytoin/valproate), thunderclap headache and SAH workup with CT then LP, bacterial meningitis with antibiotics within 30 minutes plus dexamethasone, epidural vs subdural hematoma on CT, TBI ICP management with target PaCO2 35-40, hypoglycemia and altered mental status.

~9%

GI/Abdominal & Renal Emergencies

Acute appendicitis with Alvarado score and CT (US in pediatric/pregnant), mesenteric ischemia with pain out of proportion and pneumatosis intestinalis, upper GI bleeding with restrictive transfusion threshold Hgb 7, variceal bleeding with octreotide + ceftriaxone + endoscopy, acute pancreatitis with BISAP severity scoring and aggressive LR, DKA management (fluids first, insulin only if K ≥3.3, dextrose when glucose ≤200), AKI etiology (prerenal vs ATN vs postrenal), testicular torsion with emergent detorsion within 6 hours, rhabdomyolysis with aggressive crystalloid.

~8%

Toxicology

Cholinergic toxidrome (SLUDGE/BBB) and atropine + pralidoxime, acetaminophen toxicity with NAC and Rumack-Matthew nomogram, TCA overdose with sodium bicarbonate for QRS widening, opioid overdose with titrated naloxone, methanol/ethylene glycol with fomepizole + dialysis, osmolar gap, salicylate toxicity with bicarb and dialysis, beta-blocker/calcium-channel-blocker overdose with calcium, glucagon, high-dose insulin euglycemia, intralipid emulsion as rescue, digoxin toxicity with Fab fragments, cyanide with hydroxocobalamin, CO with HBOT criteria.

~7%

Pediatric Emergencies (PALS)

PALS algorithms, weight-based dosing (epinephrine 0.01 mg/kg of 1:10,000 IV/IO, defib 2→4 J/kg), croup with racemic epinephrine and dexamethasone, epiglottitis (rare post-Hib) with airway preparation, intussusception with currant jelly stool and air enema reduction, pyloric stenosis with non-bilious vomiting and pyloromyotomy, pediatric sepsis fluid resuscitation 10-20 mL/kg boluses with reassessment, NAT/non-accidental trauma red flags, foreign body management, button battery emergency.

~6%

OB/GYN Emergencies

Ectopic pregnancy and discriminatory zone (β-hCG 1500-2000 transvaginal), methotrexate vs surgical management, placental abruption with painful bleeding and rigid uterus, placenta previa with painless bleeding, eclampsia with magnesium sulfate 4-6 g IV load then 1-2 g/hr (Magpie trial superior to phenytoin), severe preeclampsia BP control (labetalol, hydralazine), shoulder dystocia HELPERR with McRoberts and suprapubic pressure (never fundal), postpartum hemorrhage 4 Ts with oxytocin/methergine/Hemabate/misoprostol, Bakri balloon.

~5%

Environmental Emergencies

Heat stroke with rapid cold-water immersion (cooling rate 0.15-0.25°C/min), severe hypothermia with modified ACLS (defer drugs/shocks until >30°C, 'not dead until warm and dead'), drowning, decompression illness and HBOT, lightning injuries, anaphylaxis with IM epinephrine 0.3-0.5 mg first-line, snake envenomation with CroFab/Anavip antivenom (no tourniquet/incision/suction), animal/human bites with augmentin, rabies and tetanus prophylaxis, frostbite with rapid rewarming.

~5%

Infectious Disease & Sepsis

Sepsis-3 definitions and qSOFA/SOFA, Surviving Sepsis Hour-1 bundle (lactate, cultures, broad-spectrum antibiotics within 1 hour, 30 mL/kg crystalloid, vasopressors), norepinephrine first-line, bacterial meningitis empiric ceftriaxone + vancomycin (+ ampicillin if >50 or immunocompromised) + dexamethasone, meningococcemia with petechial rash and droplet isolation, necrotizing fasciitis with surgical debridement and vancomycin + pip-tazo + clindamycin, toxic shock syndrome, HIV PEP within 72 hours, tetanus prophylaxis decision tree.

~2%

Procedural Skills

Rapid sequence intubation (RSI) 7 Ps with preoxygenation, induction agent choice (etomidate vs ketamine for septic shock), succinylcholine vs rocuronium, waveform capnography for tube confirmation (gold standard), central venous access with ultrasound guidance (IJ vs subclavian vs femoral), tube thoracostomy in safe triangle (4th-5th ICS anterior to midaxillary line), lumbar puncture indications and CT-before-LP criteria, cricothyroidotomy as rescue airway, chemical sedation with ketamine/midazolam/droperidol for excited delirium.

~2%

EM Point-of-Care Ultrasound

FAST exam four windows (pericardial, RUQ Morison's pouch, LUQ perisplenic, suprapubic), eFAST adds bilateral lung views for pneumothorax, RUSH protocol (Pump/Tank/Pipes) for undifferentiated shock, B-lines indicating interstitial fluid/pulmonary edema, A-lines and absent lung sliding for pneumothorax, bedside echo for RV strain in PE (McConnell's sign), cardiac standstill in arrest, AAA screening, IVC collapsibility for volume responsiveness, gallbladder/biliary, DVT compression.

How to Pass the ABPS Emergency Medicine (BCEM) Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled score set by BCEM (modified Angoff standard)
  • Exam length: 250 questions
  • Time limit: ~6 hours CBT (two ~3-hour sessions)
  • Exam fee: ~$2,200-$2,500 examination fee (ABPS/BCEM 2026 — verify current schedule)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABPS Emergency Medicine (BCEM) Study Tips from Top Performers

1Lock in the AHA 2025 ACLS algorithm pearls cold: compression rate 100-120/min at depth 2-2.4 inches, defibrillation BEFORE epinephrine in shockable rhythms (after 2nd shock), amiodarone 300 mg for refractory VF/pVT (lidocaine 1-1.5 mg/kg as alternative), and post-ROSC TTM at a constant 32-36°C per TTM2 followed by active fever prevention. Expect direct algorithm-recall items.
2Memorize the Surviving Sepsis Campaign Hour-1 bundle and Sepsis-3 definitions: within 1 hour — measure lactate, draw blood cultures BEFORE antibiotics, give broad-spectrum antibiotics, start 30 mL/kg crystalloid for hypotension or lactate ≥4, begin vasopressors (norepinephrine first-line) if MAP <65 after fluids. Septic shock requires vasopressor need AND lactate >2 despite resuscitation.
3Stroke 2026 pearls: IV alteplase within 4.5 hours of LKW, door-to-needle ≤45 min, mechanical thrombectomy up to 24 hours from LKW for anterior LVO with favorable perfusion imaging (DAWN/DEFUSE-3 expanded windows). Always check glucose (hypoglycemia mimic), exclude hemorrhage on non-contrast CT, and review the IV alteplase exclusion checklist. Tenecteplase is increasingly accepted as an alternative thrombolytic.
4DOAC and anticoagulant reversal must be reflexive: warfarin → 4F-PCC (Kcentra) + vitamin K 10 mg IV; dabigatran → idarucizumab (Praxbind); apixaban/rivaroxaban → andexanet alfa (or 4F-PCC if andexanet unavailable); heparin → protamine. Tranexamic acid (TXA) 1 g IV within 3 hours is a useful adjunct in trauma per CRASH-2 and post-partum hemorrhage per WOMAN trial.
5ARDS lung-protective ventilation (ARDSnet): tidal volume 4-6 mL/kg PREDICTED body weight, plateau pressure ≤30 cm H2O, PEEP titrated by FiO2/PEEP table, permissive hypercapnia (pH ≥7.20). Asthma severe exacerbation: continuous albuterol + ipratropium, systemic steroids, IV magnesium 2 g for severe/refractory; silent chest and rising PaCO2 are pre-arrest warnings.
6EM ultrasound high-yield findings: FAST positive in Morison's pouch = free fluid (likely blood); RUSH = Pump (cardiac), Tank (IVC + lung B-lines), Pipes (aorta, DVT); B-lines bilaterally = pulmonary edema; absent lung sliding + A-lines = pneumothorax; McConnell's sign (RV free wall hypokinesis with apex sparing) + RV dilation = PE; D-shaped LV in shock supports massive PE.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABPS Emergency Medicine (BCEM) examination?

The ABPS BCEM examination is administered by the Board of Certification in Emergency Medicine (BCEM) under the American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS) — a non-ABMS multi-specialty certifying body. It validates competencies for physicians practicing full-spectrum emergency medicine including resuscitation/ACLS, shock and trauma, cardiovascular and respiratory emergencies, neurologic emergencies, GI/abdominal, toxicology, pediatric and OB/GYN emergencies, environmental, sepsis and infectious disease, procedural skills, and EM ultrasound.

Who is eligible to take the BCEM exam?

Candidates must hold an MD, DO, or equivalent doctoral medical degree with a valid unrestricted medical license, have completed an ACGME or AOA-accredited residency (typically primary-care fields such as Family Medicine, Internal Medicine, or Pediatrics, though other pathways may qualify), and have documented full-time clinical practice in emergency medicine for the period required by BCEM. Letters of reference and case logs verifying EM practice are typically required. Candidates whose training is in ACGME Emergency Medicine generally pursue ABEM or ABOEM rather than BCEM.

What is the format of the exam?

The BCEM examination is a computer-based test of approximately 250 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions delivered over roughly 6 hours (commonly split into two ~3-hour sessions). Items are blueprinted across the BCEM content outline (resuscitation, trauma, cardiovascular, respiratory, neurologic, GI/abdominal, toxicology, pediatrics, OB/GYN, environmental, sepsis/ID, procedural skills, EM ultrasound). Testing is offered at secure CBT centers per the published BCEM schedule.

How much does the 2026 BCEM exam cost?

The 2026 BCEM examination fee is approximately $2,200-$2,500 — always verify the current schedule on the ABPS website. Candidates should also budget for review courses and Continuous Certification (CC) fees after passing. Cancellation, reschedule, and refund policies follow the BCEM schedule with decreasing refunds as the exam date approaches.

When is the 2026 exam administered?

BCEM offers the Emergency Medicine examination at multiple test administrations each year per the published ABPS/BCEM schedule. Candidates schedule specific appointments after application approval. Exact 2026 dates and registration windows should be confirmed on the ABPS BCEM page.

How is the exam scored?

BCEM uses criterion-referenced scaled scoring with a passing standard set by subject-matter experts using the modified Angoff method. A candidate's pass/fail result depends on performance relative to the fixed cut-score, not on other candidates. Score reports typically include domain-level feedback so candidates know their strongest and weakest content areas going forward.

What are the highest-yield 2026 topics?

Highest-yield 2026 topics include the AHA 2025 ACLS updates (compression rate 100-120, post-ROSC TTM 32-36°C per TTM2), Surviving Sepsis Campaign Hour-1 bundle, Sepsis-3 definitions, extended stroke thrombectomy window up to 24 hours (DAWN/DEFUSE-3), DOAC reversal (andexanet alfa for Factor Xa, idarucizumab for dabigatran, 4F-PCC for warfarin), Stop the Bleed/TCCC tourniquet use, ATLS damage-control resuscitation 1:1:1 with TXA, ESETT second-line status epilepticus equivalence, lung-protective ventilation in ARDS, and EM ultrasound (FAST, RUSH, lung B-lines, McConnell's sign for PE).

How should I study for this exam?

Use a structured 6-12 month plan layered on your clinical practice. Map to the BCEM content outline: begin with high-yield resuscitation and trauma, then cardiovascular and respiratory emergencies, neurologic and stroke, toxicology, pediatric and OB/GYN, environmental and sepsis, and close with procedural skills and EM ultrasound. Use Tintinalli's Emergency Medicine, Rosen's Emergency Medicine, and EMRAP/Hippo EM reviews; complete 2-3 timed full-length mock exams. Practice EM ultrasound interpretation with case archives and POCUS atlases.