100+ Free ABPS Diagnostic Radiology Practice Questions

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Question 1

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On a chest radiograph, which finding is MOST specific for left-sided pleural effusion?

Blunting of the costophrenic angle

Meniscus sign on upright PA view

Diffuse haziness of the hemithorax

Elevation of the hemidiaphragm

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABPS Diagnostic Radiology Exam

~200

Total MCQ Items

ABPS BCDR Diagnostic Radiology exam

~4-5 hr

Total Exam Time

Computer-based testing

~13%

Cardiothoracic Weight

Largest single domain on the BCDR content outline

~$2,000

2026 Exam Fee (low end)

ABPS/BCDR — verify current schedule

1952

ABPS Founded

Non-ABMS multi-specialty certifying body

Sept 2024

FDA Dense Breast Notification Effective

Mammography Quality Standards Act final rule

The ABPS Diagnostic Radiology Certification Exam (BCDR) is approximately a 200-item, ~4-5 hour computer-based test administered by BCDR/ABPS for residency-trained diagnostic radiologists. The blueprint emphasizes Cardiothoracic (~13%), Neuroradiology (~12%), GI (~12%), GU (~10%), Breast (~10%), MSK (~10%), Pediatric (~8%), Nuclear/PET (~8%), Ultrasound (~7%), Vascular/IR (~5%), and Physics/Safety/Informatics (~5%). The 2026 fee is approximately $2,000-$2,500; eligibility requires completion of an ACGME-accredited diagnostic radiology residency (or BCDR-recognized equivalent) and an unrestricted MD/DO license.

Sample ABPS Diagnostic Radiology Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABPS Diagnostic Radiology exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1On a chest radiograph, which finding is MOST specific for left-sided pleural effusion?

A.Blunting of the costophrenic angle

B.Meniscus sign on upright PA view

C.Diffuse haziness of the hemithorax

D.Elevation of the hemidiaphragm

Explanation: The meniscus sign — a curved upward concave fluid level along the lateral chest wall on upright PA imaging — is highly specific for free pleural fluid because the fluid layers along gravity-dependent surfaces. Costophrenic angle blunting requires roughly 200-250 mL of fluid and is sensitive but less specific. Diffuse haziness occurs supine when fluid layers posteriorly.

2According to the Fleischner Society 2017 guidelines, a single solid pulmonary nodule of 7 mm in a low-risk patient should be managed how?

A.No follow-up needed

B.Optional CT at 6-12 months, then consider at 18-24 months

C.PET-CT and biopsy

D.Surgical wedge resection

Explanation: Per Fleischner 2017, a single solid nodule 6-8 mm in a low-risk patient is followed with optional CT at 6-12 months, then consider at 18-24 months. Nodules <6 mm in low-risk patients require no routine follow-up. Nodules >8 mm warrant CT at 3 months, PET-CT, or tissue sampling.

3Per the 2021 USPSTF lung cancer screening recommendation, which patient is eligible for annual low-dose CT (LDCT) screening?

A.65-year-old former smoker, 15 pack-years, quit 20 years ago

B.55-year-old current smoker, 30 pack-years

C.45-year-old current smoker, 20 pack-years

D.85-year-old current smoker, 40 pack-years

Explanation: USPSTF 2021 lowered eligibility to age 50-80 with ≥20 pack-years and current smoker or quit within 15 years. The 55-year-old with 30 pack-years who currently smokes meets all criteria. The 45-year-old is too young; the 65-year-old quit too long ago; the 85-year-old is too old.

4On HRCT of the chest, basal subpleural reticulation with traction bronchiectasis and honeycombing is MOST consistent with which diagnosis per the ATS/ERS criteria?

A.Nonspecific interstitial pneumonia (NSIP)

B.Usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP) / IPF

C.Sarcoidosis

D.Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

Explanation: The classic UIP pattern per ATS/ERS guidelines is basal-predominant, subpleural reticulation with honeycombing and traction bronchiectasis, often with apicobasal gradient. NSIP shows ground-glass with subpleural sparing. Sarcoidosis is perilymphatic, upper-lobe predominant. HP shows mosaic attenuation and centrilobular nodules.

5On CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA), which sign represents a wedge-shaped peripheral opacity due to pulmonary infarction from PE?

A.Westermark sign

B.Hampton hump

C.Fleischner sign

D.Golden S sign

Explanation: Hampton hump is a wedge-shaped pleural-based opacity representing pulmonary infarction from pulmonary embolism. Westermark is regional oligemia distal to an embolus. Fleischner sign is enlargement of a central pulmonary artery. Golden S sign is associated with right upper lobe collapse and central mass.

6A 60-year-old presents with sudden tearing chest pain. CT angiography shows an intimal flap involving only the descending thoracic aorta beyond the left subclavian. This is classified as which Stanford and DeBakey type?

A.Stanford A, DeBakey I

B.Stanford A, DeBakey II

C.Stanford B, DeBakey III

D.Stanford B, DeBakey II

Explanation: Stanford B dissections do NOT involve the ascending aorta. DeBakey III is confined to the descending aorta beyond the left subclavian. DeBakey I involves both ascending and descending; DeBakey II only ascending (always Stanford A). Stanford A (any ascending involvement) is surgical; Stanford B is typically medical or TEVAR.

7An anterior mediastinal mass in a 30-year-old should prompt consideration of the '4 Ts' — which is NOT one of them?

A.Thymoma

B.Teratoma

C.Thyroid (substernal goiter)

D.Tracheal carcinoma

Explanation: The 4 Ts of anterior mediastinum are: Thymoma, Teratoma (and germ cell tumors), Thyroid (substernal goiter), and Terrible lymphoma. Tracheal carcinoma is a middle mediastinal/airway lesion, not part of the classic differential.

8On coronary CTA, a CAD-RADS 4A lesion corresponds to what stenosis severity?

A.0% stenosis (CAD-RADS 0)

B.1-24% minimal stenosis

C.50-69% moderate stenosis

D.70-99% severe stenosis (single vessel, non-LM)

Explanation: CAD-RADS 4A indicates severe (70-99%) stenosis in a single vessel that is NOT the left main, with consideration of invasive coronary angiography or functional testing. CAD-RADS 4B is severe stenosis in left main (>50%) or 3-vessel obstructive disease — strong indication for ICA. CAD-RADS 5 is total occlusion.

9On supine chest radiograph, a deep, sharp lateral costophrenic angle outlined by gas suggests which finding?

A.Right middle lobe atelectasis

B.Deep sulcus sign — pneumothorax

C.Pleural effusion

D.Pulmonary edema

Explanation: The deep sulcus sign on supine CXR — abnormally deep, sharp lucent costophrenic angle — indicates anterior pneumothorax because air rises to the most superior point in a supine patient (the anterior costophrenic recess). It is a critical finding in trauma and ICU patients who cannot be imaged upright.

10On HRCT, perilymphatic nodules with bilateral hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy in a young African-American adult MOST likely represents:

A.Pulmonary tuberculosis

B.Sarcoidosis

C.Silicosis

D.Lymphangitic carcinomatosis

Explanation: Sarcoidosis classically shows perilymphatic nodules along bronchovascular bundles, fissures, and subpleural regions, with bilateral symmetric hilar and right paratracheal lymphadenopathy (Garland triad/1-2-3 sign). It has higher prevalence in African-American adults. TB tends to be unilateral with caseation; silicosis is occupational with eggshell calcifications.

About the ABPS Diagnostic Radiology Exam

The ABPS Diagnostic Radiology Certification Examination, administered by the Board of Certification in Diagnostic Radiology (BCDR) under the American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS), validates the competencies required for diagnostic radiologists practicing image-based diagnosis. Content spans cardiothoracic imaging (chest radiography, HRCT for ILD per ATS/ERS, lung cancer screening LDCT and Lung-RADS, PE on CTPA, cardiac CT/MRI), gastrointestinal imaging (acute abdomen, IBD, liver lesions and LI-RADS, pancreatitis, bowel obstruction), genitourinary imaging (Bosniak 2019 renal cysts, adrenal washout, PI-RADS prostate, O-RADS ovarian), breast imaging (ACR BI-RADS 5th edition, tomosynthesis, MRI for high-risk screening), musculoskeletal imaging (trauma, arthritis patterns, bone tumors, osteomyelitis), neuroradiology (acute stroke and ASPECTS, ICH, brain tumors, MS McDonald 2017, spine), pediatric radiology (NEC, intussusception, Salter-Harris, pediatric tumors, Image Gently), nuclear medicine and PET-CT (Tc-99m, F-18 FDG, Ga-68 DOTATATE, PSMA, theranostics Lu-177), ultrasound (abdominal, OB/Gyn, vascular Doppler, point-of-care), vascular and interventional fundamentals, and physics/safety (CT dose CTDIvol/DLP, MRI safety zones I-IV, ACR Manual on Contrast Media 2024, ALARA, image quality). Eligibility requires an MD/DO with valid unrestricted medical license and completion of an ACGME-accredited or equivalent diagnostic radiology residency.

Questions

200 scored questions

Time Limit

~4-5 hours CBT

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled score set by BCDR (modified Angoff standard)

Exam Fee

~$2,000-$2,500 examination fee (ABPS/BCDR 2026 — verify current schedule) (American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS) — Board of Certification in Diagnostic Radiology (BCDR))

ABPS Diagnostic Radiology Exam Content Outline

~13%

Cardiothoracic Imaging

Chest radiography (PA/lateral, lines and tubes, ETT/CVC/NGT positioning), pneumonia patterns (lobar, bronchopneumonia, interstitial; Klebsiella bulging fissure), interstitial lung disease (UIP basal subpleural honeycombing with traction bronchiectasis per ATS/ERS; NSIP; OP/COP reverse halo; sarcoidosis perilymphatic), Fleischner 2017 pulmonary nodule guidelines, lung cancer screening LDCT 50-80 with ≥20 pack-years (USPSTF 2021) and Lung-RADS, mediastinal masses (anterior 4Ts; middle LAD; posterior neurogenic), PE on CTPA (Hampton hump, Westermark sign), aortic dissection (Stanford A/B, DeBakey I/II/III), cardiac CT calcium score and CCTA (CAD-RADS), cardiac MRI for cardiomyopathy and viability.

~12%

Neuroradiology

Acute ischemic stroke (hyperdense MCA, loss of gray-white differentiation, insular ribbon, ASPECTS scoring 0-10; CT perfusion core vs penumbra; DWI restricts acute, FLAIR mismatch within 4.5 h thrombolysis window), intracranial hemorrhage (hypertensive — basal ganglia, thalamus, pons, cerebellum; CAA — lobar; SWI microbleeds), tumors (GBM ring-enhancing with central necrosis crossing corpus callosum; meningioma dural-based with dural tail; CP angle vestibular schwannoma ice-cream cone; 4th ventricle ependymoma in peds; cerebellar midline medulloblastoma), MS McDonald 2017 (Dawson fingers, periventricular, juxtacortical, infratentorial, cord), aneurysm/AVM/cavernoma (popcorn + hemosiderin rim on SWI), spine (cord compression, cauda equina, disc disease).

~12%

Gastrointestinal Imaging

Acute abdomen on CT, appendicitis (US first pediatric; CT adult; target sign, >6 mm non-compressible), bowel obstruction (small vs large, transition point, closed loop, ischemia), free air on upright CXR or cross-table lateral, diverticulitis, IBD (Crohn skip lesions/string sign vs UC continuous), GI bleeding workup (CTA vs tagged RBC scan), liver masses (hemangioma discontinuous nodular peripheral fill-in; FNH central scar T2 bright; HCC LI-RADS arterial hyperenhancement + washout ± capsule), pancreatitis (CT severity index, IPMN — main duct vs branch duct), biliary disease (gallstones, cholecystitis, choledocholithiasis on MRCP).

~10%

Genitourinary Imaging

Renal cystic lesions Bosniak 2019 (I/II/IIF/III/IV with MRI version), adrenal adenoma (<10 HU on noncontrast; absolute washout >60% / relative washout >40%), pheochromocytoma (T2 hyperintense, light bulb), renal cell carcinoma (clear cell hyperenhancing; papillary hypoenhancing), urolithiasis (CT KUB, stranding, hydronephrosis), pyelonephritis and emphysematous pyelonephritis, PI-RADS v2.1 prostate MRI (T2 + DWI/ADC + DCE; PI-RADS 4-5 actionable), O-RADS for ovarian/adnexal lesions, endometrial and cervical cancer staging on MRI, scrotal US (testicular torsion, epididymitis, tumor).

~10%

Breast Imaging

Mammography technique (25-30 kVp Mo/Rh anode/filter; CC and MLO views), screening (USPSTF 2024 biennial age 40-74) and digital breast tomosynthesis (DBT), ACR BI-RADS 5th edition (categories 0-6; lexicon mass shape/margins/density and calcification morphology/distribution), breast US (BI-RADS US — anechoic vs solid; benign vs suspicious features), breast MRI (high-risk screening per ACR guidelines; non-mass enhancement; abbreviated MRI), MRI-guided and stereotactic biopsy, post-treatment surveillance, FDA Mammography Quality Standards Act dense breast notification effective Sept 2024.

~10%

Musculoskeletal Imaging

Trauma (Salter-Harris I-V pediatric; named adult fractures — scaphoid, Bennett, Boxer, Lisfranc, Maisonneuve, Galeazzi, Monteggia), arthritis (OA — osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis, joint-space narrowing; RA — marginal erosions, symmetric, carpal involvement; psoriatic — pencil-in-cup, DIP, dactylitis; AS — sacroiliitis, bamboo spine; gout — tophi, punched-out rat-bite erosions; CPPD — chondrocalcinosis), bone tumors (benign — osteoid osteoma <1.5 cm nidus, osteochondroma, NOF, enchondroma, FD ground-glass; malignant — osteosarcoma sunburst/Codman, Ewing onion-skin, mets breast/lung/thyroid/renal/prostate), osteomyelitis (MRI, sequestrum, involucrum), pediatric (DDH, LCP, SCFE).

~8%

Pediatric Radiology

Image Gently and ALARA in pediatrics, neonatal chest (RDS — diffuse granular, low volume; TTN — fluid in fissures; meconium aspiration — coarse patchy; CDH; CCAM/CPAM), NEC (pneumatosis intestinalis, portal venous gas — surgical emergency), pediatric GI (pyloric stenosis US — muscle thickness >3 mm, channel length >15 mm; intussusception US — target/donut sign, US-guided air or contrast enema reduction; malrotation UGI — abnormal duodenojejunal junction position), pediatric MSK (DDH US under 6 months then radiograph; LCP, SCFE), pediatric tumors (Wilms claws kidney and displaces vessels; neuroblastoma encases vessels and calcifies).

~8%

Nuclear Medicine & PET

Radiopharmaceuticals (Tc-99m MDP bone scan, Tc-99m sestamibi cardiac/parathyroid, Tc-99m MAG3/DTPA renal, Tc-99m HIDA hepatobiliary, I-123/I-131 thyroid, In-111 octreotide), PET-CT physics (F-18 FDG, 511 keV annihilation photons, half-life 110 min), oncology FDG PET-CT staging (lung, lymphoma, melanoma, head/neck, esophageal, colorectal), Ga-68 DOTATATE for neuroendocrine, F-18 PSMA / Ga-68 PSMA for prostate, F-18 amyloid brain imaging (florbetapir, flutemetamol, florbetaben), theranostics (Lu-177 DOTATATE for NET, Lu-177 PSMA-617 for mCRPC), V/Q scan PIOPED criteria for PE.

~7%

Ultrasound

US physics (frequency-resolution-penetration tradeoff; higher MHz = better resolution, less penetration; B-mode grayscale; color/power/spectral Doppler; resistive index RI = (PSV-EDV)/PSV; TI/MI safety indices), abdominal US (gallbladder — wall >3 mm, sonographic Murphy, pericholecystic fluid; hepatic steatosis hyperechoic; AAA), OB/Gyn US (1st trimester dating, NT, TVUS for ectopic, MSD/CRL viability criteria; placenta previa/accreta), vascular US (carotid PSV criteria for stenosis; DVT compression; portal vein flow direction), thyroid US TI-RADS (composition, echogenicity, shape, margin, echogenic foci), point-of-care US (FAST exam; lung B-lines for pulmonary edema).

~5%

Vascular & Interventional Radiology

Vascular imaging fundamentals (CTA timing, MRA techniques — TOF vs contrast-enhanced; conventional angiography), aortic disease (aneurysm, dissection — Stanford A surgical, B medical/TEVAR), peripheral arterial disease (ABI, run-off vessels), GI bleed embolization, uterine artery embolization for fibroids, IVC filters and indications, PICC and central venous access, image-guided biopsy and drainage, transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) indications, hepatic chemoembolization (TACE) and Y-90 radioembolization for HCC, percutaneous nephrostomy and biliary drainage.

~5%

Physics, Safety & Informatics

Radiation units (absorbed dose Gy, equivalent dose Sv, CTDIvol mGy, DLP mGy·cm), CT dose reduction (kVp, mAs, iterative reconstruction, automatic exposure control, deep learning reconstruction), MRI safety zones I-IV per ACR, MRI implant compatibility (MR Conditional vs Unsafe; pacemakers, cochlear implants, ferromagnetic foreign bodies; gadolinium NSF risk Group I agents), ACR Manual on Contrast Media 2024 (premedication for prior reactions; eGFR thresholds; gadolinium classes), iodinated contrast reactions (mild/moderate/severe) and management, ALARA and Image Wisely, NRC and state radiation regulations, DICOM and PACS workflow, AI/ML in imaging and FDA-cleared algorithms.

How to Pass the ABPS Diagnostic Radiology Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled score set by BCDR (modified Angoff standard)
Exam length: 200 questions
Time limit: ~4-5 hours CBT
Exam fee: ~$2,000-$2,500 examination fee (ABPS/BCDR 2026 — verify current schedule)

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABPS Diagnostic Radiology Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorize the ACR Manual on Contrast Media 2024 essentials: iodinated contrast premedication for moderate/severe prior reaction (oral prednisone 50 mg at 13/7/1 hour pre-contrast + diphenhydramine 50 mg at 1 hour, OR IV methylprednisolone 40 mg + diphenhydramine 50 mg if no oral access), eGFR thresholds for IV iodinated contrast (low risk for AKI at eGFR ≥30; thoughtful consideration <30), and gadolinium NSF risk by group (Group I — gadodiamide/gadopentetate/gadoversetamide — highest risk; Group II — gadobutrol/gadoteridol/gadoterate — lowest risk).

2Know the Bosniak 2019 renal cyst classification with MRI version: I (simple, hairline wall, no septa/calcification) → benign; II (few hairline septa, fine calcification, hyperdense ≤3 cm) → benign; IIF (multiple hairline septa, minimal smooth thickening, no enhancement) → follow-up; III (thickened/irregular walls or septa with enhancement) → ~50% malignant, surgical; IV (enhancing soft-tissue components) → malignant, surgical. The 2019 update standardized criteria and added MRI-specific definitions.

3Master Lung-RADS for LDCT lung cancer screening (USPSTF 2021 — adults 50-80 with ≥20 pack-year smoking history, current or quit within 15 years): 1 (no nodules) → annual; 2 (benign features or <6 mm new) → annual; 3 (4-6 mm solid new, 6-<8 mm solid baseline, 6-<8 mm part-solid <6 mm solid component) → 6-month follow-up; 4A (8-15 mm solid, ≥6 mm part-solid) → 3-month or PET-CT; 4B/4X (>15 mm solid, >8 mm solid component) → tissue sampling.

4ACR BI-RADS 5th edition categories: 0 (incomplete — additional imaging) → typical for screening recall; 1 (negative) → routine; 2 (benign) → routine; 3 (probably benign, <2% malignancy) → 6-month follow-up; 4 (suspicious — 4A 2-10%, 4B 10-50%, 4C 50-95%) → biopsy; 5 (highly suggestive ≥95%) → biopsy; 6 (known biopsy-proven malignancy) → treatment. USPSTF 2024 update lowered screening start age to 40 (biennial through 74).

5MRI safety zones (ACR): Zone I — public access (e.g., entrance lobby); Zone II — interview/screening, transition; Zone III — restricted, ferromagnetic risk begins, badge/key access required; Zone IV — magnet room itself, only screened personnel and patients enter. MR Conditional implants are safe under specified field strength, gradient, and SAR limits — always check the implant card. Cochlear implants are typically MR Unsafe; modern pacemakers may be MR Conditional under specific protocols.

6PI-RADS v2.1 prostate MRI scoring uses T2WI for transition zone, DWI/ADC for peripheral zone (the dominant sequence for PZ), and DCE as a tiebreaker. PI-RADS 4 (high probability) and 5 (very high probability) lesions warrant biopsy. PSMA PET (F-18 piflufolastat or Ga-68 PSMA-11) supplements MRI for biochemical recurrence and high-risk staging. Lu-177 PSMA-617 (Pluvicto) is approved theranostic for PSMA-positive mCRPC after androgen-receptor-pathway inhibition and taxane chemotherapy.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABPS Diagnostic Radiology (BCDR) Certification Examination?

The ABPS Diagnostic Radiology Certification Examination is administered by the Board of Certification in Diagnostic Radiology (BCDR) under the American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS). It validates the competencies required for diagnostic radiologists across cardiothoracic, gastrointestinal, genitourinary, breast, musculoskeletal, neuroradiology, pediatric, nuclear medicine/PET, ultrasound, vascular/interventional, and physics/safety domains. ABPS is a non-ABMS multi-specialty certifying body that has provided physician board certification since 1952.

Who is eligible to take the BCDR Diagnostic Radiology exam?

Candidates must hold an MD, DO, or equivalent doctoral medical degree with a valid unrestricted medical license, and have completed an ACGME-accredited (or BCDR-recognized equivalent) diagnostic radiology residency program. Candidates must currently practice in diagnostic radiology and submit letters of reference attesting to clinical competence. Always verify current eligibility requirements on the ABPS BCDR website.

What is the format of the exam?

The BCDR Diagnostic Radiology exam is a computer-based test of single-best-answer multiple-choice questions (approximately 200 items over ~4-5 hours) blueprinted to BCDR's content outline: Cardiothoracic (~13%), Neuroradiology (~12%), GI (~12%), GU (~10%), Breast (~10%), MSK (~10%), Pediatric (~8%), Nuclear/PET (~8%), Ultrasound (~7%), Vascular/IR (~5%), and Physics/Safety/Informatics (~5%). Many items use image-rich vignettes drawn from radiography, CT, MRI, ultrasound, fluoroscopy, mammography, and nuclear medicine.

How much does the 2026 exam cost?

The 2026 BCDR Diagnostic Radiology examination fee is approximately $2,000-$2,500 — always verify the current fee schedule on the ABPS website. Candidates should also budget for ongoing Continuous Certification (CC) fees after passing. Cancellation and refund policies follow the BCDR schedule with decreasing refunds as the exam date approaches.

When is the 2026 exam administered?

BCDR offers the Diagnostic Radiology examination at multiple test administrations each year per the published ABPS/BCDR schedule. Candidates schedule specific appointments after application approval. Exact 2026 dates should be confirmed on the ABPS Diagnostic Radiology page.

How is the exam scored?

BCDR uses criterion-referenced scaled scoring with a passing standard set by subject-matter experts using the modified Angoff method. A candidate's pass/fail result depends on performance relative to the fixed cut-score, not on other candidates. Score reports typically include domain-level feedback so candidates know their strongest and weakest content areas.

What are the highest-yield 2026 topics?

Highest-yield 2026 topics include the ACR Manual on Contrast Media 2024 (eGFR thresholds, premedication for prior reactions, gadolinium classes), USPSTF 2024 breast screening update (biennial age 40-74), FDA Mammography Quality Standards Act dense breast notification effective Sept 2024, ACR BI-RADS 5th edition, Lung-RADS and Fleischner 2017, LI-RADS for HCC, Bosniak 2019 renal cysts, PI-RADS v2.1 prostate, McDonald 2017 MS criteria, ASPECTS for stroke, and theranostics (Lu-177 DOTATATE, Lu-177 PSMA-617). MRI safety zones I-IV and CTDIvol/DLP dose reporting are perennial favorites.

How does ABPS BCDR compare to ABR diagnostic radiology certification?

ABPS BCDR is administered by the American Board of Physician Specialties, a non-ABMS certifying body, while the ABR (American Board of Radiology) is the traditional ABMS pathway with separate Core (PGY-4) and Certifying (15 months post-residency) exams. ABMS recognition is more widely required for hospital privileges and managed care credentialing in some markets, but ABPS BCDR is recognized by many hospitals and provides an alternative pathway for residency-trained diagnostic radiologists. Always verify hospital and payer credentialing requirements before choosing a certification pathway.

How should I study for this exam?

Use a structured 6-12 month plan layered on clinical practice. Map study to the BCDR content outline: begin with physics and safety (CT dose, MRI safety zones, ACR Contrast Manual), then drill body imaging (chest CXR/HRCT, GI/GU, breast BI-RADS), then MSK/neuro/peds, and close with nuclear medicine, ultrasound, and vascular/IR. Use textbooks (Brant & Helms Fundamentals; Mandell Core Radiology; Donnelly Pediatric Imaging), RSNA case collections, ACR Appropriateness Criteria, and high-volume image-rich MCQ practice. Complete 2-3 timed full-length mock exams.