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100+ Free ABPS Disaster Medicine Practice Questions

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Which of the following represents the correct sequence of the FEMA/emergency management cycle?

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABPS Disaster Medicine Exam

~200

Total MCQ Items

ABPS BCDM Certification Examination

~4 hr

Total Exam Time

Computer-based test at approved centers

~30%

CBRNE Weight

Largest single domain on 2026 BCDM content outline

~$2,500

2026 Exam Fee

ABPS BCDM (verify current schedule)

NIMS 5th

ICS Standard (2017)

National Incident Management System, 5th edition

HICS 2014

Hospital ICS

Hospital Incident Command System, 2014 edition

The ABPS Disaster Medicine Certification Examination is a computer-based test from the American Board of Physician Specialties Board of Certification in Disaster Medicine (BCDM) comprising approximately 200 single-best-answer MCQs over ~4 hours. Content spans CBRNE (~30%), disaster planning/preparedness (~13%), pandemic response (~10%), incident command/NIMS (~7%), legal/ethics (~7%), triage (~6%), natural disasters (~6%), MCI response (~5%), logistics/MCM (~5%), trauma care (~4%), exercises (~3%), mental health (~2%), and vulnerable populations (~2%). Certification fee is ~$2,500; requires MD/DO with unrestricted license, primary specialty certification, and documented disaster medicine experience.

Sample ABPS Disaster Medicine Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABPS Disaster Medicine exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which of the following represents the correct sequence of the FEMA/emergency management cycle?
A.Response, recovery, mitigation, preparedness
B.Preparedness, mitigation, recovery, response
C.Mitigation, preparedness, response, recovery
D.Recovery, response, preparedness, mitigation
Explanation: FEMA defines the four phases of emergency management as mitigation (reducing risk before an event), preparedness (planning, training, exercising), response (actions during/immediately after an event), and recovery (restoring the community). The cycle is continuous, with lessons from recovery feeding back into mitigation and preparedness.
2The Kaiser Permanente Hazard Vulnerability Analysis (HVA) tool scores hazards using which formula?
A.Probability × Severity (where severity = human + property + business impact minus mitigation)
B.Probability × Magnitude + Cost
C.Frequency × Fatalities × Time to recovery
D.Threat × Vulnerability minus Capability
Explanation: The Kaiser HVA calculates risk as Probability × Severity. Severity combines human impact, property impact, and business impact, with mitigation (preparedness and internal/external response capability) subtracted. It is the most widely used HVA tool in U.S. hospitals and is required by The Joint Commission.
3Presidential Policy Directive 8 (PPD-8) established which national framework concept?
A.Continuity of Operations only
B.HIPAA disaster waiver authority
C.The Stafford Act
D.National Preparedness Goal built on five mission areas
Explanation: PPD-8 (2011) directed development of the National Preparedness Goal and identified five mission areas: Prevention, Protection, Mitigation, Response, and Recovery. It drives the National Preparedness System, core capabilities, and the suite of National Planning Frameworks.
4Homeland Security Presidential Directive 21 (HSPD-21) focuses on which area?
A.Public health and medical preparedness
B.Cybersecurity of federal networks
C.Border security
D.Aviation security after 9/11
Explanation: HSPD-21 (2007) established a national strategy for public health and medical preparedness, focusing on four critical components: biosurveillance, countermeasure distribution, mass casualty care, and community resilience.
5The Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act primarily does what?
A.Authorizes federal disaster assistance after a Presidential declaration at a governor's request
B.Creates the Department of Homeland Security
C.Authorizes only military response to disasters
D.Funds only terrorism response
Explanation: The Stafford Act (1988, amended) is the statutory authority for most federal disaster response. A governor requests assistance; the President then declares either an 'Emergency' (up to $5M without Congressional notification) or a 'Major Disaster,' triggering FEMA Public Assistance, Individual Assistance, and Hazard Mitigation grant programs.
6Threat and Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment (THIRA) is conducted on what cycle?
A.Every 6 months
B.Annually
C.Every 3 years (with Stakeholder Preparedness Review annually)
D.Only after a disaster
Explanation: FEMA requires UASI and SHSP grant recipients to complete a THIRA every three years and an annual Stakeholder Preparedness Review (SPR). The THIRA identifies threats/hazards, sets capability targets, and the SPR assesses current capability gaps.
7Which federal agency serves as the primary ESF-8 (Public Health and Medical Services) coordinator under the National Response Framework?
A.FEMA
B.DHS
C.HHS (through ASPR)
D.DoD
Explanation: Emergency Support Function 8 (Public Health and Medical Services) is coordinated by the Department of Health and Human Services, primarily through the Administration for Strategic Preparedness and Response (ASPR, formerly ASPR/OASH). ESF-8 covers medical surge, patient movement, behavioral health, mass fatality, and veterinary services.
8Under NIMS Fifth Edition doctrine, which statement about the Incident Commander (IC) is TRUE?
A.The IC must always be the most medically senior provider on scene
B.The IC cannot delegate authority
C.The IC is the single individual responsible for overall on-scene management of the incident
D.The IC reports directly to the FEMA Administrator
Explanation: In ICS, the IC is the single individual with overall authority and responsibility for incident management. The IC sets objectives, approves the Incident Action Plan, and may delegate functions (Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance/Admin, and Command Staff — Safety, PIO, Liaison).
9The recommended ICS span of control is generally how many direct reports per supervisor?
A.1 to 3
B.No limit
C.7 to 10
D.3 to 7 (optimal 5)
Explanation: ICS doctrine recommends a span of control between 3 and 7 subordinates per supervisor, with 5 considered optimal. Exceeding this should trigger reorganization (e.g., branches, divisions, groups) to maintain manageability.
10Which ICS General Staff section is responsible for tracking costs, time, compensation, and procurement?
A.Operations
B.Planning
C.Logistics
D.Finance/Administration
Explanation: Finance/Administration manages cost accounting, time recording, compensation/claims, and procurement. Operations executes tactics; Planning produces the IAP and tracks resources; Logistics provides facilities, services, supplies, and communications.

About the ABPS Disaster Medicine Exam

The ABPS Disaster Medicine Certification Examination validates core knowledge for physicians practicing disaster and emergency preparedness medicine. Content spans CBRNE (chemical nerve agents with atropine/2-PAM, vesicants, cyanide with hydroxocobalamin, CDC Category A biological agents — anthrax with obiltoxaximab/raxibacumab/Cyfendus, smallpox/mpox with tecovirimat/brincidofovir/ACAM2000/JYNNEOS, plague, tularemia, botulinum; radiation with Prussian blue/DTPA/KI; blast injury), disaster planning and preparedness (FEMA cycle, Kaiser HVA, THIRA, Stafford Act, PPD-8, HSPD-21, IOM 2012 Crisis Standards), pandemic response (EUA, 1135 waivers, PREP Act, N95 fit testing), incident command (NIMS 5th edition 2017, HICS 2014), legal/ethics (MSEHPA, EMTALA under disaster, EMAC), triage (SALT, START, JumpSTART), natural disasters (crush syndrome, heat stroke, hypothermia), MCI response, logistics (SNS, CHEMPACK, Project BioShield, DMAT/NDMS/MRC/DMORT), trauma care (TCCC, MARCH, tourniquets, TXA), exercises (HSEEP), mental health (PFA), and vulnerable populations. Candidates must hold a valid unrestricted medical license with primary specialty certification and documented disaster medicine experience.

Questions

200 scored questions

Time Limit

CBT (~4 hours)

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled score set by BCDM (modified Angoff standard)

Exam Fee

~$2,500 certification examination fee (ABPS BCDM 2026 — verify current schedule) (American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS) — Board of Certification in Disaster Medicine (BCDM))

ABPS Disaster Medicine Exam Content Outline

~30%

CBRNE (Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear, Explosive)

Nerve agents (sarin, VX, Novichok — AChE inhibition, atropine + 2-PAM, diazepam; pediatric AtroPen 0.25/0.5/1/2 mg), vesicants (sulfur mustard no antidote; Lewisite — BAL), cyanide (hydroxocobalamin 5 g IV, sodium thiosulfate), pulmonary agents (chlorine, phosgene), CDC Category A agents — anthrax (obiltoxaximab, raxibacumab; ciprofloxacin/doxycycline PEP; Cyfendus), smallpox/mpox (tecovirimat, brincidofovir, ACAM2000, JYNNEOS), plague, tularemia, botulinum (heptavalent antitoxin), VHF (Ebola, Marburg, Lassa), radiation (ARS phases; Prussian blue — cesium; DTPA — plutonium/americium; KI — radioiodine), blast injury (primary/secondary/tertiary/quaternary).

~13%

Disaster Planning & Preparedness

FEMA cycle (mitigation, preparedness, response, recovery), Kaiser HVA (Probability × Severity where Severity = human + property + business impact − mitigation), THIRA, Stafford Act (presidential disaster declarations), PPD-8 (National Preparedness Goal), HSPD-21, IOM 2012 Crisis Standards of Care (conventional/contingent/crisis), hospital EOP, EMAC mutual aid, Joint Commission EM standards.

~10%

Pandemic & Infectious Disease Response

Pandemic planning phases (WHO, CDC), NPIs, EUA (Emergency Use Authorization), 1135 waivers (CMS), PREP Act liability, PPE tiers, OSHA HAZWOPER, N95 fit testing, airborne/droplet/contact precautions, SARS-CoV-2, pandemic influenza (H5N1, H7N9), Ebola, ACIP vaccine allocation tiers, MCM distribution.

~7%

Incident Command System (ICS) & NIMS

NIMS 5th edition (2017), Incident Command/Unified Command/Area Command, span of control 3-7 (optimal 5), Command/Operations/Planning/Logistics/Finance-Admin sections, HICS 2014 (Hospital Incident Command System), IC/PIO/Safety/Liaison command staff, IAP and planning P, ESFs 1-15, NRF, NDRF, EOC activation.

~7%

Legal, Ethical & Regulatory

Stafford Act, PREP Act, MSEHPA (Model State Emergency Health Powers Act), EMTALA under 1135 waiver, crisis standards of care (IOM 2012), scope-of-practice and licensure reciprocity (EMAC, ESAR-VHP, MRC), Good Samaritan, informed consent in disasters, scarce resource allocation (ventilators, ECMO), triage ethics (utilitarian vs egalitarian).

~6%

Triage Systems

SALT (Sort, Assess, Lifesaving interventions, Treatment/Transport) — U.S. national standard, START (RPM: respirations <30, perfusion/cap refill <2 s or radial pulse, mental status), JumpSTART (pediatric — 5 rescue breaths if apneic with pulse), four-color system (green/yellow/red/black), reverse triage, secondary triage.

~6%

Natural Disasters

Earthquakes (crush syndrome — hyperkalemia, rhabdomyolysis, aggressive IV fluids pre-extrication, bicarbonate, hemodialysis; Haddon Matrix), hurricanes/tornadoes (wind, debris, flooding), floods (drowning, Vibrio vulnificus, leptospirosis), wildfires (smoke, burns, CO), tsunamis, volcanic eruptions, hypothermia, heat stroke (classic vs exertional — cooling to 39°C).

~5%

Mass Casualty Incident (MCI) Response

Scene management, casualty collection point, medical strike team/task force, transport priorities, hospital surge capacity (4 S's — staff, stuff, space, systems), tiered MCI activation, trauma center designation, interhospital transfer, mass fatality (DMORT).

~5%

Logistics & Medical Countermeasures

Strategic National Stockpile (SNS) — 12-hour Push Packages, Managed Inventory; CHEMPACK (pre-positioned nerve agent antidotes); Project BioShield; points of dispensing (POD); DMAT, NDMS, MRC, ESAR-VHP; pharmaceutical cache; supply chain; power/water/medical gas redundancy.

~4%

Trauma Care in Austere Environments

TCCC (Tactical Combat Casualty Care) — Care Under Fire, Tactical Field Care, TACEVAC; MARCH algorithm (Massive hemorrhage, Airway, Respiration, Circulation, Hypothermia/Head), CAT and SOFTT-W tourniquets, junctional tourniquets, Combat Gauze (kaolin), needle decompression, cricothyroidotomy, TXA within 3 hours, permissive hypotension, 1:1:1 damage control resuscitation.

~3%

Exercises, Drills & Evaluation

HSEEP (Homeland Security Exercise and Evaluation Program), exercise types (seminar, workshop, tabletop, drill, functional, full-scale), after-action review (AAR), improvement plan (IP), Joint Commission two-exercise annual requirement (one community-wide).

~2%

Mental Health & Psychological First Aid

Psychological First Aid (PFA — 8 core actions), acute stress reaction, ASD vs PTSD timing, CISM (debriefing controversies, evidence against mandatory CISD), responder resilience, burnout, NIMH 5 essential elements (safety, calming, self-efficacy, connectedness, hope).

~2%

Vulnerable & Special Populations

Pediatrics (JumpSTART, pediatric AtroPen 0.25/0.5/1/2 mg, weight-based dosing), geriatrics, pregnancy, persons with disabilities (access and functional needs), dialysis-dependent patients, durable medical equipment, language access, service animals, shelter medical support.

How to Pass the ABPS Disaster Medicine Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled score set by BCDM (modified Angoff standard)
  • Exam length: 200 questions
  • Time limit: CBT (~4 hours)
  • Exam fee: ~$2,500 certification examination fee (ABPS BCDM 2026 — verify current schedule)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABPS Disaster Medicine Study Tips from Top Performers

1CBRNE is ~30% of the exam — memorize nerve agent antidotes: atropine (titrated to drying of secretions, not pupils) + pralidoxime (2-PAM, reactivates AChE before aging — sarin ~5 hr, soman ~2 min) + diazepam for seizures. Pediatric AtroPen comes in 0.25, 0.5, 1, and 2 mg autoinjectors. Cyanide: hydroxocobalamin 5 g IV (70 mg/kg peds) preferred over the old nitrite/thiosulfate kit in smoke inhalation because nitrites worsen methemoglobinemia.
2CDC Category A biological agents and their current MCMs (high-yield): anthrax — ciprofloxacin or doxycycline for PEP × 60 days plus Cyfendus (AV7909) vaccine; obiltoxaximab and raxibacumab are monoclonal antibodies against protective antigen for inhalational anthrax. Smallpox/mpox — tecovirimat (TPOXX) is first-line antiviral; brincidofovir is second-line; ACAM2000 (replicating) and JYNNEOS (non-replicating, preferred in immunocompromised) vaccines. Plague and tularemia — streptomycin or doxycycline. Botulinum — heptavalent equine antitoxin from CDC.
3NIMS 5th edition (2017) and HICS 2014 — span of control is 3-7 subordinates (optimal 5). The five ICS sections are Command, Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance/Administration. Command staff (report to IC): Public Information Officer, Safety Officer, Liaison Officer. Kaiser HVA formula: Risk = Probability × Severity, where Severity = (Human impact + Property impact + Business impact) − Mitigation. This is the Joint Commission-referenced hospital HVA.
4Triage systems — SALT is the U.S. national standard: Sort (global sorting — walk, wave, still), Assess (individual), Lifesaving interventions (hemorrhage control, airway, chest decompression, antidotes), Treatment/Transport. START uses RPM: Respirations >30 = red, Perfusion (cap refill >2 s or no radial pulse) = red, Mental status (cannot follow commands) = red. JumpSTART (pediatric): if apneic with pulse, give 5 rescue breaths before tagging black — this is the key pediatric modification.
5Crisis Standards of Care (IOM 2012) — three levels: Conventional (usual standards, surge within normal capacity), Contingency (functionally equivalent care, space/staff/supply adaptations), Crisis (significantly different standards, proactive triage, allocation of scarce resources). Stafford Act triggers federal disaster declaration. 1135 waivers (CMS) suspend EMTALA, HIPAA sanctions, and other requirements during declared emergencies. PREP Act provides liability immunity for covered countermeasures.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABPS Disaster Medicine Certification Examination?

The ABPS Disaster Medicine Certification Examination is administered by the American Board of Physician Specialties through the Board of Certification in Disaster Medicine (BCDM). It validates the knowledge of physicians practicing disaster and emergency preparedness medicine across CBRNE, incident command (NIMS/HICS), triage, pandemic response, crisis standards of care, medical countermeasures, and mass casualty operations.

Who is eligible to take the BCDM exam?

Candidates must hold an MD or DO degree with a valid unrestricted medical license, hold primary specialty certification (commonly Emergency Medicine, Family Medicine, or Internal Medicine), and document disaster medicine experience. Eligibility typically includes AADM (American Academy of Disaster Medicine) involvement, DMAT/NDMS or MRC deployment history, hospital emergency management roles, and continuing education in disaster medicine.

What is the format of the BCDM exam?

The BCDM certification exam is a computer-based examination administered at approved test centers, comprising approximately 200 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions over about 4 hours. Items are blueprinted to the BCDM content outline spanning CBRNE, disaster planning, incident command, triage, pandemic response, legal/ethics, logistics, and related domains.

How much does the 2026 BCDM exam cost?

The 2026 BCDM certification examination fee is approximately $2,500 — always verify the current schedule on the ABPS website. Additional costs include AADM membership, required CME in disaster medicine, and ongoing Continuing Certification fees after passing. Cancellation and refund policies follow the ABPS schedule with decreasing refunds as the exam date approaches.

When is the 2026 exam administered?

BCDM typically offers the examination on scheduled windows each year at approved computer-based testing centers. Applications open in advance with a submission deadline several months before the test window. Candidates schedule specific appointments after application approval. Confirm exact 2026 dates on the ABPS Disaster Medicine page.

How is the exam scored?

BCDM uses criterion-referenced scaled scoring with a passing standard set by subject-matter experts using the modified Angoff method. Pass/fail depends on performance relative to the fixed cut-score, not on other candidates. Score reports include domain-level feedback, and candidates who do not pass may retake the examination within the qualification window.

What are the highest-yield topics?

Highest-yield topics include nerve agent antidotes (atropine titrated to secretions + 2-PAM; pediatric AtroPen dosing), cyanide antidotes (hydroxocobalamin 5 g IV), CDC Category A agents and specific MCMs (obiltoxaximab/raxibacumab/Cyfendus for anthrax; tecovirimat for smallpox/mpox), radiation countermeasures (Prussian blue for cesium, DTPA for plutonium/americium, KI for radioiodine), NIMS 5th ed ICS structure and span of control, HICS 2014, Kaiser HVA formula, SALT/START/JumpSTART triage, IOM 2012 Crisis Standards of Care, Stafford Act, PREP Act, 1135 waivers, and crush syndrome management.

How should I study for this exam?

Use a structured 6-12 month plan mapped to the BCDM content outline. Begin with NIMS/ICS foundations and FEMA cycle, then CBRNE and medical countermeasures (largest domain at ~30%), triage and MCI, pandemic response and legal/ethical frameworks, natural disasters, logistics (SNS/CHEMPACK/DMAT), TCCC trauma, exercises, and mental health. Integrate AADM materials, FEMA EMI Independent Study courses (IS-100, 200, 700, 800), CDC emergency preparedness modules, and high-volume MCQ practice. Complete 2-3 full-length timed mock exams.