100+ Free ABPS Dermatology (BCD) Practice Questions

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Question 1

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A 35-year-old presents with well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scale on the elbows, knees, and scalp. Which finding on histopathology is most characteristic?

Spongiosis with eosinophils

Parakeratosis, neutrophil microabscesses (Munro), and acanthosis with elongated rete ridges

Lichenoid lymphocytic infiltrate with apoptotic keratinocytes

Subepidermal blister with eosinophils

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABPS Dermatology (BCD) Exam

200

Total MCQ Items

ABPS BCD Dermatology exam

~4 hr

Total Exam Time

Computer-based testing

0.8 mm

AJCC 8 T1a/T1b Cutoff

AJCC 8th edition melanoma staging

~$2,000

2026 Exam Fee

ABPS/BCD (verify current schedule)

3 yr

Dermatology Residency

ACGME/AOA post-internship requirement

~18%

Inflammatory Weight

Largest single domain on BCD content outline

The ABPS Dermatology (BCD) Certification Exam is a ~200-item, ~4-hour computer-based test administered by BCD/ABPS for MD/DO dermatologists. The blueprint emphasizes Inflammatory dermatoses (~18%), Melanoma (~12%), Infectious dermatoses (~12%), NMSC/cutaneous oncology (~10%), Dermatologic surgery and Mohs (~10%), Pediatric dermatology (~9%), Pharmacology and biologics (~9%), Connective tissue/immunodermatology and bullous (~8%), Hair/nail/mucosa (~7%), and Cosmetic dermatology (~5%). The 2026 fee is approximately $2,000; eligibility requires ACGME/AOA dermatology residency completion.

Sample ABPS Dermatology (BCD) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABPS Dermatology (BCD) exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 35-year-old presents with well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scale on the elbows, knees, and scalp. Which finding on histopathology is most characteristic?

A.Spongiosis with eosinophils

B.Parakeratosis, neutrophil microabscesses (Munro), and acanthosis with elongated rete ridges

C.Lichenoid lymphocytic infiltrate with apoptotic keratinocytes

D.Subepidermal blister with eosinophils

Explanation: Plaque psoriasis shows parakeratosis, Munro microabscesses (neutrophils in stratum corneum), regular acanthosis with elongated rete ridges, and dilated dermal capillaries. Spongiosis with eosinophils suggests eczematous dermatitis. Lichenoid pattern suggests lichen planus.

2Which of the following is the first-line topical therapy for moderate atopic dermatitis on the face of an adult?

A.High-potency class I corticosteroid (clobetasol)

B.Topical calcineurin inhibitor (tacrolimus or pimecrolimus)

C.Topical retinoid (tazarotene)

D.Oral methotrexate

Explanation: Topical calcineurin inhibitors (tacrolimus 0.1% in adults, 0.03% in children, or pimecrolimus 1%) are preferred for facial and intertriginous atopic dermatitis to avoid steroid-related skin atrophy. Class I steroids are too potent for facial use.

3A patient has flat-topped, polygonal, violaceous papules on the wrists with white reticulated lines on the surface. Buccal mucosa shows similar reticulated white pattern. What is the diagnosis?

A.Lichen planus

B.Lichen sclerosus

C.Lichen simplex chronicus

D.Lupus erythematosus

Explanation: Lichen planus presents with the 6 P's: pruritic, polygonal, planar, purple, papules, and plaques. Wickham striae (reticulated white lines) on lesions and buccal mucosa are diagnostic. Histology shows a band-like lymphocytic infiltrate at the dermoepidermal junction.

4An 80-year-old develops tense bullae on an erythematous base on the trunk and flexural areas. DIF shows linear IgG and C3 along the basement membrane. Which antigen is most commonly targeted?

A.Desmoglein 3

B.BP180 (collagen XVII) and BP230

C.Type VII collagen

D.Laminin 332

Explanation: Bullous pemphigoid is caused by autoantibodies against hemidesmosomal proteins BP180 and BP230. Linear IgG and C3 along the BMZ on DIF is characteristic. Salt-split skin shows IgG on the epidermal (roof) side. Pemphigus vulgaris targets desmoglein 3.

5A patient has flaccid bullae and erosions on the oral mucosa and trunk. Nikolsky sign is positive. DIF shows intercellular IgG (chicken-wire pattern) in the epidermis. What is the diagnosis?

A.Bullous pemphigoid

B.Pemphigus vulgaris

C.Dermatitis herpetiformis

D.Linear IgA dermatosis

Explanation: Pemphigus vulgaris is autoimmune blistering targeting desmoglein 3 (and sometimes desmoglein 1). Mucosal involvement is universal; flaccid bullae and positive Nikolsky sign are typical. Intercellular IgG/C3 (chicken-wire) on DIF is diagnostic.

6A patient has intensely pruritic grouped vesicles on the elbows, knees, and buttocks. DIF shows granular IgA in the dermal papillae. What systemic disease is most strongly associated?

A.Inflammatory bowel disease

B.Celiac disease (gluten-sensitive enteropathy)

C.Type 1 diabetes

D.Hashimoto thyroiditis

Explanation: Dermatitis herpetiformis is the cutaneous manifestation of celiac disease. Granular IgA at dermal papillae on DIF and anti-tissue transglutaminase / anti-epidermal transglutaminase (TG3) antibodies confirm the diagnosis. Treatment is dapsone and a strict gluten-free diet.

7A patient with severe plaque psoriasis and active psoriatic arthritis is started on a biologic that targets the p19 subunit of IL-23. Which agent matches this mechanism?

A.Adalimumab

B.Secukinumab

C.Risankizumab

D.Etanercept

Explanation: Risankizumab, guselkumab, and tildrakizumab are IL-23 p19 inhibitors. Adalimumab and etanercept are TNF inhibitors. Secukinumab and ixekizumab are IL-17A inhibitors. IL-23 inhibitors have excellent skin and joint efficacy with infrequent dosing.

8A child has honey-colored crusted erosions on the face. Which is the most common causative organism for non-bullous impetigo in the United States?

A.Streptococcus pyogenes

B.Staphylococcus aureus

C.Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D.Corynebacterium minutissimum

Explanation: Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of impetigo (both non-bullous and bullous forms) in the US. Topical mupirocin or retapamulin is first-line for limited disease; oral cephalexin or dicloxacillin for extensive disease.

9A 70-year-old develops a unilateral painful vesicular eruption in a T6 dermatomal distribution. Which antiviral started within 72 hours reduces postherpetic neuralgia risk?

A.Acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir

B.Topical mupirocin

C.Oral fluconazole

D.Topical permethrin

Explanation: Oral antivirals (acyclovir 800 mg 5x/day, valacyclovir 1 g TID, or famciclovir 500 mg TID) for 7 days started within 72 hours of rash onset reduce duration and severity of zoster and lower postherpetic neuralgia risk. Recombinant zoster vaccine (Shingrix) prevents zoster.

10A patient presents with an annular, scaly plaque with central clearing and an active erythematous border. KOH preparation of the scale shows septate branching hyphae. What is the diagnosis?

A.Nummular eczema

B.Tinea corporis

C.Erythema migrans

D.Granuloma annulare

Explanation: Tinea corporis (dermatophytosis) classically presents with an annular plaque, scaly border, and central clearing. KOH prep showing septate hyphae confirms. Treatment is topical antifungals (terbinafine, azoles) for limited disease; oral terbinafine or itraconazole for extensive or refractory cases.

About the ABPS Dermatology (BCD) Exam

The ABPS Dermatology (BCD) Certification Examination, administered by the Board of Certification in Dermatology under the American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS), validates the competencies required for diplomate-level dermatologic practice. Content spans inflammatory dermatoses (psoriasis, atopic dermatitis, lichen planus, vesiculobullous), infectious dermatoses (bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic, STIs with 2025 CDC guidelines), melanocytic lesions and melanoma (AJCC 8th edition staging, dermoscopy, sentinel lymph node biopsy), non-melanoma skin cancer (BCC and SCC, NCCN risk stratification, hedgehog inhibitors, cemiplimab), pediatric and neonatal dermatology (hemangioma propranolol, genodermatoses, beremagene geperpavec for DEB), dermatologic surgery (Mohs micrographic surgery and AUC criteria, NCCN excision margins, flaps/grafts), pharmacology and biologics (JAK inhibitors with BBW, IL-17/IL-23/IL-13 blockade, isotretinoin and 2026 iPLEDGE single gender-neutral designation), hair, nail, and mucosal disorders, connective tissue disease (lupus, dermatomyositis, scleroderma), immunodermatology and bullous disease (DIF/IIF, dupilumab for bullous pemphigoid 2024), and cosmetic dermatology (toxins, fillers, lasers, peels). Eligibility requires MD/DO with ACGME or AOA dermatology residency completion.

Questions

200 scored questions

Time Limit

~4 hours CBT

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled score set by BCD (modified Angoff standard)

Exam Fee

~$2,000 examination fee (ABPS/BCD 2026 — verify current schedule) (American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS) — Board of Certification in Dermatology (BCD))

ABPS Dermatology (BCD) Exam Content Outline

~18%

Inflammatory Dermatoses

Psoriasis (plaque, guttate, pustular, erythrodermic, inverse, nail) with PASI scoring; atopic dermatitis (Hanifin-Rajka, EASI, SCORAD) and topical/systemic ladder including dupilumab, tralokinumab, lebrikizumab, JAK inhibitors (upadacitinib, abrocitinib, ruxolitinib cream); seborrheic dermatitis; lichen planus and lichenoid drug eruptions; pityriasis rosea; vesiculobullous and contact dermatitis; urticaria and angioedema; rosacea subtypes (erythematotelangiectatic, papulopustular, phymatous, ocular); granuloma annulare; sarcoidosis; cutaneous lupus erythematosus.

~12%

Infectious Dermatoses & STIs

Bacterial (impetigo, ecthyma, erysipelas, cellulitis, MRSA, necrotizing fasciitis, syphilis stages, 2025 CDC STI Treatment Guidelines including doxy-PEP), viral (HSV-1/2, VZV, HPV, molluscum, mpox clade I/II 2024 outbreak, measles), superficial and deep fungal (tinea, candidiasis, pityriasis versicolor, sporotrichosis rose-thorn, blastomycosis, coccidioidomycosis, terbinafine-resistant Trichophyton indotineae), parasitic (scabies — permethrin, ivermectin; lice; leishmaniasis), mycobacterial (leprosy WHO PB/MB classification, atypical mycobacteria including M. marinum).

~12%

Melanocytic Lesions & Melanoma

Common, dysplastic, congenital, Spitz, blue, halo, and recurrent nevi; dermoscopy 2-step algorithm and ABCDE; melanoma subtypes (superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, acral lentiginous, desmoplastic, mucosal); AJCC 8th edition T/N/M staging with 0.8 mm Breslow threshold separating T1a/T1b (mitotic rate removed from T category), ulceration; sentinel lymph node biopsy indications (T1b and ≥T2); BRAF/NRAS/KIT mutations; targeted therapy (dabrafenib/trametinib, encorafenib/binimetinib) and immunotherapy (pembrolizumab, nivolumab, ipilimumab, relatlimab combo); 2026 NCCN melanoma guidelines.

~10%

Non-Melanoma Skin Cancer (BCC & SCC)

Basal cell carcinoma subtypes (nodular, superficial, morpheaform/infiltrative, basosquamous), high vs low risk per NCCN, hedgehog pathway inhibitors (vismodegib, sonidegib), cemiplimab for advanced BCC; squamous cell carcinoma in situ (Bowen disease), invasive cSCC and Brigham-Women's high-risk staging, keratoacanthoma, cemiplimab and pembrolizumab for advanced cSCC; Merkel cell carcinoma (MCPyV) and avelumab/pembrolizumab; dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (COL1A1-PDGFB) and imatinib; sebaceous and adnexal carcinomas; cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (mycosis fungoides TNMB, Sézary syndrome, mogamulizumab).

~10%

Dermatologic Surgery & Mohs

Mohs micrographic surgery indications per Mohs Appropriate Use Criteria (AUC, AAD/ACMS/ASDSA/ASMS 2012 with revisions), tumor types qualifying (high-risk BCC/SCC on H-zone, recurrent, large, immunocompromised, perineural); excision margins (NCCN: BCC 4 mm low-risk, SCC 4-6 mm low-risk; melanoma 0.5-1 cm in situ, 1 cm <1 mm Breslow, 1-2 cm 1-2 mm, 2 cm ≥2 mm); electrodesiccation and curettage, cryotherapy (liquid nitrogen 2× freeze-thaw), photodynamic therapy (ALA, MAL); flaps (advancement, rotation, transposition, bilobed, rhombic) and grafts (FTSG/STSG); local anesthetics (lidocaine max 4.5 mg/kg plain, 7 mg/kg with epinephrine).

~9%

Pediatric & Neonatal Dermatology

Infantile hemangioma and oral propranolol first-line (PHACE syndrome posterior fossa/hemangioma/arterial/cardiac/eye, LUMBAR syndrome lower body); port-wine stain and Sturge-Weber (GNAQ); congenital melanocytic nevi and melanoma risk; epidermolysis bullosa subtypes (simplex, junctional, dystrophic) and 2024 FDA-approved beremagene geperpavec topical gene therapy for DEB; ichthyoses (vulgaris filaggrin, X-linked steroid sulfatase, lamellar TGM1); NF1, tuberous sclerosis (TSC1/TSC2), incontinentia pigmenti (NEMO); pediatric atopic dermatitis; viral exanthems (HFMD coxsackievirus A6 atypical, fifth disease parvovirus B19, roseola HHV-6); SSSS.

~9%

Pharmacology & Biologics

Topical corticosteroid potency classes I-VII; topical calcineurin inhibitors (tacrolimus, pimecrolimus); systemic immunosuppressants (methotrexate with folate, cyclosporine with BP/Cr monitoring, mycophenolate, azathioprine with TPMT testing); retinoids (isotretinoin and 2026 iPLEDGE single gender-neutral patient designation effective 2024-2026, acitretin); IL-17 inhibitors (secukinumab, ixekizumab, brodalumab BBW for SI, bimekizumab); IL-23 inhibitors (guselkumab, risankizumab, tildrakizumab); IL-13 (tralokinumab, lebrikizumab); IL-4Rα (dupilumab — psoriasis no, AD/asthma/EoE/PN/BP yes); JAK inhibitors and FDA black-box warning (MACE, malignancy, thrombosis, mortality); TNF-α inhibitors and TB/HBV screening.

~7%

Hair, Nail & Mucosal Disorders

Androgenetic alopecia (topical minoxidil 2/5%, oral finasteride/dutasteride, low-dose oral minoxidil); alopecia areata and JAK inhibitors (baricitinib FDA-approved 2022, ritlecitinib 2023, deuruxolitinib 2024); telogen effluvium; scarring/cicatricial alopecia (lichen planopilaris, frontal fibrosing alopecia, central centrifugal cicatricial alopecia, folliculitis decalvans, dissecting cellulitis); trichotillomania and N-acetylcysteine; hirsutism and PCOS; nail anatomy and disorders (onychomycosis with confirmatory KOH/PAS, paronychia, melanonychia, glomus tumor, subungual melanoma — Hutchinson sign); oral mucosal disease (oral lichen planus, leukoplakia, candidiasis, geographic tongue, aphthae); genital dermatoses (lichen sclerosus and SCC risk).

~8%

Connective Tissue Disease, Immunodermatology & Bullous

Lupus erythematosus (SCLE Ro/SSA, DLE photodistribution, ACLE malar) and hydroxychloroquine; dermatomyositis (Gottron papules, heliotrope, shawl/V-sign, ILD risk with anti-MDA5/Jo-1, malignancy with anti-TIF1γ); systemic sclerosis (anti-Scl-70, anti-centromere, anti-RNA polymerase III) and morphea; mixed connective tissue disease (anti-U1 RNP); Sjögren syndrome (anti-Ro/La); cutaneous vasculitis (IgA vasculitis Henoch-Schönlein, ANCA-associated, urticarial, polyarteritis nodosa, cryoglobulinemic); pemphigus vulgaris/foliaceus (anti-Dsg3/1, IgG intercellular DIF) with rituximab first-line; bullous pemphigoid (BP180/BP230, linear C3/IgG at BMZ — salt-split skin epidermal binding) with dupilumab approved 2024; pemphigoid gestationis; dermatitis herpetiformis (granular IgA dermal papillae, gluten); EBA (anti-collagen VII, dermal binding); SJS/TEN with SCORTEN.

~5%

Cosmetic Dermatology

Botulinum toxin type A formulations (onabotulinumtoxinA, abobotulinumtoxinA, incobotulinumtoxinA, prabotulinumtoxinA, daxibotulinumtoxinA-lanm) and unit dosing for glabellar (20U onabot)/forehead/crow's feet; soft tissue fillers (HA Restylane/Juvederm, calcium hydroxylapatite Radiesse, poly-L-lactic acid Sculptra, PMMA Bellafill) and complications (vascular occlusion, blindness — glabellar/nasal high-risk anastomoses, hyaluronidase rescue for HA, nodules, biofilm); chemical peels (superficial glycolic/salicylic, medium TCA 35%, deep phenol-croton oil with cardiac monitoring); laser/IPL (KTP, PDL for vascular, alexandrite/diode/Nd:YAG for hair, ablative CO2/Er:YAG and fractional, picosecond for tattoos), Fitzpatrick skin types and PIH risk; sclerotherapy.

How to Pass the ABPS Dermatology (BCD) Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled score set by BCD (modified Angoff standard)
Exam length: 200 questions
Time limit: ~4 hours CBT
Exam fee: ~$2,000 examination fee (ABPS/BCD 2026 — verify current schedule)

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABPS Dermatology (BCD) Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorize AJCC 8th edition melanoma staging cold: T1a (<0.8 mm without ulceration) vs T1b (<0.8 mm with ulceration OR 0.8-1.0 mm regardless); mitotic rate is NO LONGER part of T-category (removed in 8th edition — common test trap). SLNB is recommended for T1b and higher. Breslow depth, ulceration, and primary tumor mitotic rate all carry independent prognostic weight in stage I-II.

2Know the 2026 iPLEDGE update: the program transitioned to a single gender-neutral patient designation (people who can become pregnant vs people who cannot), eliminating the prior three-gender system. Two negative pregnancy tests, two contraception methods, monthly pregnancy tests, and 30-day prescription windows still apply. Isotretinoin requires lipid panel and LFT monitoring; teratogenicity is FDA pregnancy category X.

3Dupilumab (anti-IL-4Rα) FDA approvals to remember: atopic dermatitis (≥6 months 2022), asthma, EoE, prurigo nodularis (2022), chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyps, AND bullous pemphigoid (approved 2024 — high-yield). Dupilumab is NOT approved for psoriasis (paradoxical psoriasis is a known adverse event). Conjunctivitis and head/neck dermatitis are notable AEs.

4JAK inhibitor FDA boxed warning is universal across the class (tofacitinib data extrapolated): MACE, malignancy (lymphoma, NMSC), thrombosis (DVT/PE), serious infection, and all-cause mortality. In dermatology this includes upadacitinib (AD), abrocitinib (AD), baricitinib (AA), ritlecitinib (AA), deuruxolitinib (AA — approved 2024), and topical ruxolitinib (AD, vitiligo).

5Mohs Appropriate Use Criteria (AUC) high-yield indications: H-zone tumors (central face, eyelids, eyebrows, nose, lips, chin, ear, periauricular, genitalia, hands, feet, ankles, nail units), recurrent BCC/SCC, aggressive histology (morpheaform, infiltrative, perineural, basosquamous), large size (M-zone ≥1 cm, L-zone ≥2 cm), immunocompromised host. NCCN BCC excision margin is 4 mm for low-risk; SCC is 4-6 mm low-risk.

6Bullous disease antibody/DIF cheat sheet: pemphigus vulgaris/foliaceus = anti-Dsg3/1, IgG intercellular fish-net DIF, rituximab first-line; bullous pemphigoid = BP180/BP230, linear C3+IgG at BMZ, salt-split skin epidermal binding, dupilumab approved 2024; dermatitis herpetiformis = anti-tTG/anti-epidermal TG, granular IgA at dermal papillae tips, gluten-free diet + dapsone; EBA = anti-collagen VII, dermal binding on salt-split.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABPS Dermatology (BCD) Certification Examination?

The ABPS Dermatology (BCD) Certification Examination is administered by the Board of Certification in Dermatology under the American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS). It is a non-ABMS diplomate certification that validates competencies required for full-scope dermatologic practice across inflammatory, infectious, oncologic (melanoma, NMSC, CTCL), pediatric, surgical (Mohs), pharmacologic/biologic, and cosmetic dermatology, as well as connective tissue, immunodermatology, hair/nail/mucosal disorders, and bullous disease.

Who is eligible to take the BCD Dermatology exam?

Candidates must hold an MD, DO, or equivalent doctoral medical degree with a valid unrestricted medical license, and must have completed an ACGME- or AOA-accredited dermatology residency program (or a BCD-approved equivalent training pathway recognized by ABPS). Letters of reference attesting to dermatologic practice and ethical professional standing are required, along with adherence to the ABPS Code of Ethics.

What is the format of the exam?

The BCD Dermatology examination is a computer-based test of approximately 200 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions over roughly 4 hours at a secure CBT center (with remote-proctored options per the BCD schedule). Items are blueprinted across inflammatory dermatoses (~18%), melanoma (~12%), infectious dermatoses (~12%), NMSC and cutaneous oncology (~10%), dermatologic surgery and Mohs (~10%), pediatric dermatology (~9%), pharmacology and biologics (~9%), connective tissue/immunodermatology/bullous (~8%), hair/nail/mucosa (~7%), and cosmetic dermatology (~5%).

How much does the 2026 exam cost?

The 2026 BCD Dermatology examination fee is approximately $2,000 — always verify the current schedule on the ABPS website. Candidates should also budget for ongoing Continuous Certification (CC) fees after passing, as well as travel to a CBT center if remote proctoring is unavailable. Cancellation and refund policies follow the BCD schedule with decreasing refunds as the examination date approaches.

When is the 2026 exam administered?

BCD offers the Dermatology examination at multiple test administrations each year per the published ABPS/BCD schedule. Candidates schedule specific appointments after application approval. Exact 2026 dates and registration deadlines should be confirmed on the ABPS Dermatology page.

How is the exam scored?

BCD uses criterion-referenced scaled scoring with a passing standard set by subject-matter experts using the modified Angoff method. A candidate's pass/fail result depends on performance relative to the fixed cut-score, not on other candidates. Score reports typically include domain-level feedback so candidates can identify their strongest and weakest content areas across the BCD blueprint.

What are the highest-yield 2026 topics?

Highest-yield 2026 topics include the AJCC 8th edition melanoma staging (0.8 mm Breslow threshold separating T1a/T1b, mitotic rate removed from T), 2026 iPLEDGE single gender-neutral patient designation, dupilumab approved for bullous pemphigoid (2024) and prurigo nodularis, JAK inhibitor FDA black-box warning (MACE, malignancy, thrombosis), deuruxolitinib for alopecia areata (2024), beremagene geperpavec topical gene therapy for DEB (2024), terbinafine-resistant Trichophyton indotineae, mpox clade I/II, NCCN 2026 BCC/SCC/melanoma updates, Mohs AUC indications, IL-17/IL-23 biologics for psoriasis, and 2025 CDC STI guidelines including doxy-PEP.

How should I study for this exam?

Use a structured 6-12 month plan after dermatology residency. Map to the BCD content outline: begin with inflammatory and infectious dermatoses, then melanoma/NMSC/CTCL, dermatologic surgery and Mohs, pharmacology and biologics, hair/nail/mucosal, connective tissue/immunodermatology/bullous, pediatric dermatology, and finally cosmetic dermatology. Use Bolognia Dermatology, Habif Clinical Dermatology, Wolverton Comprehensive Dermatologic Drug Therapy, Andrews' Diseases of the Skin, dermoscopy atlases (Argenziano), AAD guidelines, NCCN cutaneous oncology guidelines, AJCC 8th edition, and high-volume MCQ practice. Complete 2-3 timed full-length mock exams.