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100+ Free ABPS Obstetrics & Gynecology Practice Questions

Pass your ABPS Obstetrics & Gynecology Certification Examination exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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A 28-year-old G2P1 at 12 weeks' gestation presents for her first prenatal visit. Which test is the MOST accurate method to confirm gestational age at this point?

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABPS Obstetrics & Gynecology Exam

~250

Total MCQ Items

ABPS BCOG OB/GYN exam

~6 hr

Total Exam Time

Computer-based testing

~14%

Antenatal Complications Weight

Largest single domain on 2026 BCOG content outline

~$2,200

2026 Exam Fee

ABPS/BCOG (verify current schedule)

39 wks

ARRIVE Elective Induction

NEJM 2018 — low-risk nulliparas

1000 mL

PPH Threshold (any delivery)

ACOG postpartum hemorrhage bundle

The ABPS OB/GYN Certification Exam is a ~250-item, ~6-hour computer-based test administered by BCOG/ABPS for OB/GYN physicians. The blueprint weighs Antenatal Complications (~14%), L&D Management (~13%), Prenatal Care (~12%), Operative OB (~9%), Postpartum/Hemorrhage (~9%), Contraception (~9%), Gyn Infections (~8%), AUB/PALM-COEIN (~7%), Menopause (~6%), Pelvic Pain/Endometriosis (~5%), Gyn Oncology Screening (~5%), and Urogyn/Infertility (~3%). The 2026 fee is approximately $2,200; eligibility requires completion of an ACGME or AOA-accredited OB/GYN residency.

Sample ABPS Obstetrics & Gynecology Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABPS Obstetrics & Gynecology exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 28-year-old G2P1 at 12 weeks' gestation presents for her first prenatal visit. Which test is the MOST accurate method to confirm gestational age at this point?
A.Last menstrual period (LMP) by recall
B.Crown-rump length (CRL) on ultrasound
C.Fundal height measurement
D.β-hCG quantitative level
Explanation: Crown-rump length (CRL) measured on ultrasound between 6 and 13+6 weeks is the most accurate method to establish gestational age (within ~5-7 days). Once CRL exceeds the first trimester, biparietal diameter and femur length are used but with greater error. LMP is unreliable in many patients, fundal height is gross, and β-hCG does not reliably date a pregnancy.
2At what gestational age range does ACOG recommend universal Group B Streptococcus (GBS) screening?
A.32-34 weeks
B.34-36 weeks
C.36-37 6/7 weeks
D.38-40 weeks
Explanation: ACOG and the CDC updated GBS screening to 36 0/7 to 37 6/7 weeks (previously 35-37 weeks) to better reflect the 5-week window in which colonization status is predictive at the time of delivery. Positive screens (or unknown status with risk factors) receive intrapartum penicillin G prophylaxis.
3A 32-year-old G3P2 who is Rh-negative presents at 28 weeks' gestation. Her antibody screen is negative. What is the next step?
A.Administer 50 mcg of anti-D immune globulin
B.Administer 300 mcg (1500 IU) of anti-D immune globulin
C.Repeat antibody screen at 36 weeks before deciding
D.No prophylaxis is needed unless paternal blood type is known
Explanation: All Rh-negative non-sensitized women receive a standard 300 mcg (1500 IU) dose of anti-D immune globulin (RhoGAM) at 28 weeks' gestation, with another dose within 72 hours of delivery if the neonate is Rh-positive. The 50 mcg microdose is only used for first-trimester events such as early pregnancy loss.
4Which screening test is the MOST sensitive first-trimester aneuploidy screen with the lowest false-positive rate for trisomy 21?
A.Maternal serum AFP alone
B.Quad screen (AFP, hCG, estriol, inhibin A)
C.Cell-free fetal DNA (cfDNA / NIPT)
D.Nuchal translucency alone
Explanation: Cell-free fetal DNA (cfDNA, also called NIPT) has the highest sensitivity (>99%) and the lowest false-positive rate (<0.5%) for trisomy 21 in singleton pregnancies. ACOG now supports offering cfDNA to all pregnant patients regardless of risk. Quad screen and combined first-trimester screens have higher false-positive rates.
5When should Tdap (tetanus, diphtheria, acellular pertussis) be administered during pregnancy?
A.Only if the patient has not received Tdap as an adult
B.27-36 weeks of every pregnancy
C.Postpartum only
D.First trimester to maximize antibody transfer
Explanation: ACIP and ACOG recommend Tdap administration between 27 and 36 weeks of every pregnancy, regardless of prior immunization history, to maximize transplacental transfer of pertussis antibodies and protect the newborn from pertussis in the first months of life.
6A 30-year-old G1P0 with pre-pregnancy BMI of 22 (normal weight) is asking about appropriate weight gain for her singleton pregnancy. What is the IOM-recommended total weight gain?
A.11-20 lb
B.15-25 lb
C.25-35 lb
D.35-45 lb
Explanation: Per the Institute of Medicine (IOM) guidelines, normal-weight women (BMI 18.5-24.9) should gain 25-35 lb. Underweight (BMI <18.5): 28-40 lb; overweight (BMI 25-29.9): 15-25 lb; obese (BMI ≥30): 11-20 lb. Recommendations are for singleton pregnancies.
7A nulliparous patient at 34 weeks' gestation presents with BP of 162/108 on two occasions 4 hours apart, headache, and proteinuria of 400 mg/24 hr. What is the diagnosis?
A.Gestational hypertension
B.Chronic hypertension
C.Preeclampsia without severe features
D.Preeclampsia with severe features
Explanation: ACOG defines severe-features preeclampsia by ANY of: BP ≥160/110 on two occasions ≥4 hr apart, platelets <100k, AST/ALT >2× normal, creatinine >1.1 (or doubling), pulmonary edema, or new-onset cerebral/visual symptoms. This patient has both severe-range BP and a new headache, qualifying her as preeclampsia with severe features. Proteinuria threshold for diagnosis is ≥300 mg/24 hr.
8Which medication is the FIRST-LINE agent for seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia with severe features?
A.Phenytoin
B.Magnesium sulfate
C.Diazepam
D.Levetiracetam
Explanation: Magnesium sulfate is the first-line agent for both seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia with severe features and for treatment of eclamptic seizures. Standard dosing is a 4-6 g IV loading dose over 20 minutes followed by 1-2 g/hr maintenance, continued for at least 24 hours postpartum. Toxicity is monitored by deep tendon reflexes and respiratory rate.
9When should delivery occur in preeclampsia with severe features at 35 weeks' gestation?
A.After delivery of betamethasone and magnesium, deliver promptly
B.Expectant management until 39 weeks
C.Expectant management until 37 weeks regardless of features
D.Immediate delivery without antenatal corticosteroids
Explanation: Preeclampsia with severe features at ≥34 weeks generally warrants delivery. From 34 0/7 to 36 6/7 weeks, ACOG recommends antenatal corticosteroids (betamethasone) for fetal lung maturity if not previously given, then delivery. Magnesium sulfate is given for seizure prophylaxis. Preeclampsia without severe features is delivered at 37 weeks; eclampsia or HELLP requires delivery regardless of gestational age once stabilized.
10Which laboratory finding is part of the diagnostic criteria for HELLP syndrome?
A.Platelets >150,000/μL
B.AST or ALT ≥ 2× upper limit of normal
C.LDH < 600 IU/L
D.Hemoglobin >12 g/dL
Explanation: HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets) requires: (1) microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (schistocytes, elevated LDH typically >600 IU/L, low haptoglobin, indirect hyperbilirubinemia), (2) elevated transaminases (AST/ALT ≥2× ULN), and (3) thrombocytopenia (platelets <100,000/μL). It is a severe-features preeclampsia variant requiring delivery once stabilized.

About the ABPS Obstetrics & Gynecology Exam

The ABPS Obstetrics & Gynecology Certification Examination, administered by the Board of Certification in Obstetrics and Gynecology (BCOG) under the American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS), validates the competencies required to practice obstetrics and gynecology. Content spans prenatal care and antenatal surveillance (cell-free DNA, anatomy ultrasound, GBS at 36-37 6/7 weeks, RhoGAM at 28 weeks), antenatal complications (gestational hypertension and preeclampsia with ACOG severe features, magnesium sulfate seizure prophylaxis, GDM with 1-hour 50-g screen, FGR Doppler surveillance, preterm labor with betamethasone and magnesium neuroprotection, PPROM), labor and delivery (NICHD fetal monitoring categories, ARRIVE 39-week induction, ACOG/SMFM 2014 safe-prevention-of-cesarean, shoulder dystocia HELPERR), operative obstetrics (cesarean delivery, VBAC/TOLAC counseling, vacuum and forceps), postpartum care and ACOG postpartum hemorrhage bundle (oxytocin, methylergonovine, carboprost, misoprostol, TXA within 3 hours, Bakri/Jada balloon), gynecologic infections (CDC 2021 STI guidelines), contraception (USMEC 2024), abnormal uterine bleeding (PALM-COEIN, levonorgestrel IUD), menopause (NAMS 2022 hormone therapy), pelvic pain and endometriosis, gynecologic oncology screening (USPSTF 2024 + ACS 2020 cervical cancer screening), urogynecology, and infertility basics. Eligibility requires an MD/DO with unrestricted license, completion of an ACGME or AOA-accredited OB/GYN residency, and active OB/GYN practice with peer references.

Questions

250 scored questions

Time Limit

~6 hours CBT

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled score set by BCOG (modified Angoff standard)

Exam Fee

~$2,200 examination fee (ABPS/BCOG 2026 — verify current schedule) (American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS) — Board of Certification in Obstetrics and Gynecology (BCOG))

ABPS Obstetrics & Gynecology Exam Content Outline

~14%

Antenatal Complications (HTN, GDM, Preeclampsia, IUGR)

Gestational hypertension and preeclampsia (ACOG severe features ≥160/110, magnesium sulfate seizure prophylaxis, delivery timing — 37 wks for preeclampsia without severe features, 34 wks with severe features), HELLP, eclampsia, chronic hypertension in pregnancy, gestational diabetes (1-hour 50-g screen at 24-28 weeks, 3-hour 100-g GTT thresholds, glycemic targets, insulin first-line if uncontrolled), pregestational diabetes (A1c <6%), fetal growth restriction (umbilical artery Doppler surveillance, delivery at 37 wks for FGR with normal Dopplers), preterm labor (cervical length, fFN, betamethasone 24-34 wks, magnesium neuroprotection <32 wks), PPROM (latency antibiotics ampicillin+azithromycin).

~13%

Labor & Delivery Management

Bishop score and induction (oxytocin titration, prostaglandins PGE1/PGE2, Foley balloon), ARRIVE trial supporting elective induction at 39 weeks for low-risk nulliparas, normal labor stages and Friedman/Zhang labor curves, intrapartum fetal monitoring NICHD Category I/II/III with Cat II management, ACOG/SMFM 2014 safe-prevention-of-cesarean criteria (active labor at 6 cm, allow 4+ hr arrest with adequate contractions), shoulder dystocia (HELPERR mnemonic), cord prolapse, uterine rupture, twin delivery routes, breech presentation and external cephalic version after 36-37 wks.

~12%

Prenatal Care & Antenatal Surveillance

Routine prenatal visits, dating ultrasound (CRL most accurate ≤13+6), first-trimester aneuploidy screening (cell-free DNA preferred for high-risk; NT/PAPP-A/hCG combined), second-trimester quad screen, anatomy ultrasound 18-22 weeks, GBS screening at 36-37 6/7 wks with intrapartum penicillin if positive, Tdap at 27-36 weeks each pregnancy, RhoGAM at 28 weeks for Rh-negative, IOM weight-gain ranges by pre-pregnancy BMI, antepartum fetal surveillance (NST, BPP, modified BPP, umbilical artery Doppler), kick counts.

~9%

Operative Obstetrics (Cesarean, Vaginal Operative)

Cesarean delivery indications (NRFHR, arrest, malpresentation, placenta previa/accreta, prior classical), low transverse vs classical incisions, ERAS-cesarean protocols, VBAC/TOLAC counseling (success calculator, uterine rupture risk ~0.5-1% with one prior low transverse, ~4-9% classical contraindicated), repeat cesarean at 39 weeks, vacuum-assisted (kiwi/Mityvac, ≤3 pop-offs, ≤20 min) and forceps deliveries, criteria for operative vaginal delivery (engaged head, dilated cervix, ROM, known position, anesthesia), 3rd/4th-degree lacerations, neonatal cephalohematoma vs subgaleal hemorrhage.

~9%

Postpartum Care & Hemorrhage

Routine postpartum care, ACOG postpartum hemorrhage bundle (>1000 mL after any delivery — vaginal or cesarean), uterine atony first-line uterotonics in stepwise order (oxytocin → methylergonovine avoiding HTN → carboprost avoiding asthma → misoprostol), TXA 1 g IV within 3 hours of birth (WOMAN trial), Bakri/Jada intrauterine balloons, B-Lynch suture, uterine artery embolization, peripartum hysterectomy, retained products, placenta accreta spectrum, postpartum endometritis (clindamycin + gentamicin), Sheehan syndrome, postpartum depression (Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale), VTE prophylaxis.

~9%

Contraception & Family Planning

USMEC 2024 (US Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use) categories 1-4, LARC (copper IUD up to 12 yrs, levonorgestrel IUDs 8 yrs, etonogestrel implant 5 yrs — Tier 1, <1% failure), combined hormonal contraception estrogen contraindications (USMEC 4: migraine with aura, smoker ≥35, hx of VTE, uncontrolled HTN, <21 days postpartum, hx breast cancer), progestin-only methods, depo-medroxyprogesterone (BMD black box, weight gain), emergency contraception (ulipristal acetate up to 120 hr, copper IUD most effective up to 5 days), permanent contraception (bilateral salpingectomy preferred per ACOG), lactational amenorrhea criteria.

~8%

Gynecologic Infections & STIs

Bacterial vaginosis (Amsel/Nugent, metronidazole 500 mg BID 7 days), vulvovaginal candidiasis (fluconazole 150 mg single dose), trichomoniasis (single-dose metronidazole 2 g — updated to multi-day 500 mg BID 7 days for women per CDC 2021, expedited partner therapy), chlamydia (doxycycline 100 mg BID 7 days first-line per CDC 2021), gonorrhea (ceftriaxone 500 mg IM single dose; 1 g if ≥150 kg), pelvic inflammatory disease (CDC 2021 outpatient: ceftriaxone 500 mg IM + doxycycline 100 mg BID 14 days + metronidazole 500 mg BID 14 days), tubo-ovarian abscess, syphilis staging and benzathine PCN, HSV, HPV, HIV in pregnancy.

~7%

Abnormal Uterine Bleeding (PALM-COEIN)

PALM-COEIN classification (Polyp, Adenomyosis, Leiomyoma, Malignancy/hyperplasia; Coagulopathy, Ovulatory dysfunction, Endometrial, Iatrogenic, Not yet classified), evaluation (TVUS, saline infusion sonography for endometrial pathology, hysteroscopy, endometrial biopsy in all postmenopausal bleeding and women ≥45 with AUB or <45 with risk factors — obesity, unopposed estrogen, Lynch), levonorgestrel IUD as first-line medical therapy for AUB, tranexamic acid, NSAIDs, OCPs, leiomyoma management (myomectomy for fertility-sparing, UAE, hysterectomy), endometrial ablation contraindicated if future fertility desired.

~6%

Menopause & Hormone Therapy

Natural menopause (median age 51, defined retrospectively after 12 months amenorrhea), STRAW+10 staging, vasomotor symptoms (HT remains most effective therapy), genitourinary syndrome of menopause (low-dose vaginal estrogen safe), NAMS 2022 hormone therapy position statement (most favorable benefit-risk in women <60 yrs or within 10 yrs of menopause — window of opportunity), risks (oral estrogen → VTE; combined HT >5 yrs → modest breast cancer risk; estrogen-only safer for hysterectomized women), nonhormonal options (paroxetine 7.5 mg FDA-approved, gabapentin, fezolinetant NK3 antagonist), USPSTF DEXA at 65 (younger if FRAX risk equivalent).

~5%

Pelvic Pain & Endometriosis

Acute vs chronic pelvic pain workup, endometriosis (cyclic dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, dyschezia, infertility — laparoscopy is gold-standard diagnosis but empiric treatment acceptable; first-line NSAIDs + OCPs/progestins; second-line GnRH agonists [leuprolide] or antagonists [elagolix] with add-back therapy), adenomyosis, primary dysmenorrhea (NSAIDs first), ovarian torsion (acute pain + adnexal mass — surgical emergency), ruptured ovarian cyst, ectopic pregnancy (methotrexate criteria: hemodynamically stable, β-hCG <5000, mass <3.5 cm, no FCA; salpingostomy vs salpingectomy).

~5%

Gynecologic Oncology Screening

Cervical cancer screening — ACS 2020 (primary HPV testing every 5 yrs starting at age 25) and USPSTF 2024 update (age 21-29 cytology q3y; age 30-65 HPV alone q5y, co-testing q5y, or cytology q3y; stop at 65 with adequate prior screening; HPV self-collection now FDA-approved), HPV vaccination (Gardasil 9 ages 9-45, 2-dose <15 yrs / 3-dose ≥15 yrs), endometrial cancer (postmenopausal bleeding — endometrial biopsy mandatory; tamoxifen and unopposed estrogen risk), ovarian cancer (no routine screening — USPSTF D recommendation for general population; CA-125 + TVUS only for symptomatic), BRCA1/2 risk-reducing salpingo-oophorectomy.

~3%

Urogynecology & Infertility

Pelvic organ prolapse (POP-Q staging, pessary first-line, sacrocolpopexy abdominal vs vaginal native-tissue repair), stress urinary incontinence (midurethral sling gold standard), urgency incontinence (behavioral and bladder training first, then anticholinergics or β3-agonist mirabegron, then sacral neuromodulation or onabotulinumtoxinA), recurrent UTI, fecal incontinence; infertility (evaluate after 12 months of regular intercourse if <35 yrs, or 6 months if ≥35 yrs; semen analysis per WHO 2021 criteria, hysterosalpingogram, ovarian reserve AMH/AFC, ovulation induction with letrozole first-line for PCOS per ASRM).

How to Pass the ABPS Obstetrics & Gynecology Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled score set by BCOG (modified Angoff standard)
  • Exam length: 250 questions
  • Time limit: ~6 hours CBT
  • Exam fee: ~$2,200 examination fee (ABPS/BCOG 2026 — verify current schedule)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABPS Obstetrics & Gynecology Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorize the ACOG diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia with severe features (BP ≥160/110 on two occasions ≥4 hr apart, platelets <100k, AST/ALT 2× normal, creatinine >1.1 or doubling, pulmonary edema, new cerebral/visual symptoms). Severe features at ≥34 wks → deliver; without severe features → deliver at 37 wks. Magnesium sulfate (4-6 g loading, 1-2 g/hr) is the standard for seizure prophylaxis and is continued ≥24 hr postpartum.
2Lock in the ACOG/SMFM 2014 'Safe Prevention of the Primary Cesarean' criteria — active labor begins at 6 cm (not 4 cm), allow ≥4 hr of arrest of dilation with adequate contractions (or 6 hr with inadequate) before diagnosing arrest, and ≥3-4 hr arrest of descent in 2nd stage. ARRIVE (NEJM 2018) supports elective induction at 39 wks for low-risk nulliparas — reduces cesarean without harming neonate.
3ACOG postpartum hemorrhage bundle (>1000 mL after any delivery): uterotonics in stepwise order — oxytocin (always first), methylergonovine (avoid in HTN/preeclampsia), carboprost/Hemabate (avoid in asthma), misoprostol; add TXA 1 g IV within 3 hours per WOMAN trial. Mechanical: bimanual massage, Bakri/Jada intrauterine balloon. Surgical: B-Lynch, uterine artery ligation, hysterectomy.
4Cervical cancer screening 2026 — ACS 2020 (primary HPV q5y starting at 25) and USPSTF 2024 update (age 21-29 cytology q3y; age 30-65 HPV alone q5y, co-testing q5y, or cytology q3y; FDA-approved HPV self-collection in clinic). Stop at 65 with adequate prior negative screening. Postmenopausal bleeding = endometrial biopsy, period. Endometrial sampling also for AUB ≥45 yrs or <45 with obesity/unopposed estrogen/Lynch.
5USMEC 2024 contraception eligibility — Category 4 (do not use) absolute contraindications to estrogen-containing methods: migraine with aura, smoker ≥35 yrs (≥15 cig/day), prior VTE, uncontrolled HTN ≥160/100, <21 days postpartum, current breast cancer, severe cirrhosis. LARCs (copper IUD, LNG-IUD, etonogestrel implant) are Tier 1 with <1% failure and safe in nearly all conditions including immediately postpartum.
6STI treatment per CDC 2021 — chlamydia: doxycycline 100 mg BID 7 days (first-line, replaces single-dose azithromycin). Gonorrhea: ceftriaxone 500 mg IM single dose (1 g if ≥150 kg) — no longer add azithromycin routinely. PID outpatient: ceftriaxone 500 mg IM + doxycycline 100 mg BID 14 days + metronidazole 500 mg BID 14 days. Trichomoniasis (women): metronidazole 500 mg BID 7 days; expedited partner therapy.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABPS Obstetrics & Gynecology Certification Examination?

The ABPS Obstetrics & Gynecology Certification Examination is administered by the Board of Certification in Obstetrics and Gynecology (BCOG) under the American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS). It validates the competencies required to practice OB/GYN across prenatal care, antenatal complications, labor and delivery, operative obstetrics, postpartum care and hemorrhage, gynecologic infections, contraception, abnormal uterine bleeding, menopause, pelvic pain and endometriosis, gynecologic oncology screening, urogynecology, and infertility basics.

Who is eligible to take the BCOG OB/GYN exam?

Candidates must hold an MD, DO, or equivalent doctoral medical degree with a valid unrestricted medical license and have completed an ACGME-accredited or AOA-accredited Obstetrics and Gynecology residency program (or equivalent training pathway recognized by BCOG). Active OB/GYN practice in good standing and letters of reference from OB/GYN colleagues attesting to clinical competency are required as part of the application.

What is the format of the exam?

The BCOG OB/GYN exam is a computer-based test comprising approximately 250 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions over roughly 6 hours. Items are blueprinted to the BCOG content outline: Antenatal Complications (~14%), L&D Management (~13%), Prenatal Care (~12%), Operative OB (~9%), Postpartum/Hemorrhage (~9%), Contraception (~9%), Gyn Infections (~8%), AUB (~7%), Menopause (~6%), Pelvic Pain/Endometriosis (~5%), Gyn Oncology Screening (~5%), and Urogyn/Infertility (~3%). Testing is offered at secure CBT centers with remote-proctored options per the BCOG schedule.

How much does the 2026 exam cost?

The 2026 BCOG Obstetrics & Gynecology examination fee is approximately $2,200 — always verify the current schedule on the ABPS website. Candidates should also budget for ongoing Continuous Certification (CC) fees after passing. Cancellation and refund policies follow the BCOG schedule with decreasing refunds as the exam date approaches.

When is the 2026 exam administered?

BCOG offers the OB/GYN examination at multiple test administrations each year per the published ABPS/BCOG schedule. Candidates schedule specific appointments after application approval. Exact 2026 dates should be confirmed on the ABPS Obstetrics & Gynecology page.

How is the exam scored?

BCOG uses criterion-referenced scaled scoring with a passing standard set by subject-matter experts using the modified Angoff method. A candidate's pass/fail result depends on performance relative to the fixed cut-score, not on other candidates. Score reports typically include domain-level feedback so candidates know their strongest and weakest content areas.

What are the highest-yield 2026 topics?

Highest-yield 2026 topics include the USPSTF 2024 cervical cancer screening update (HPV alone q5y for age 30-65, FDA-approved HPV self-collection), ACS 2020 primary HPV at age 25, ACOG severe-features preeclampsia management with magnesium sulfate, ACOG/SMFM 2014 safe-prevention-of-cesarean criteria (active labor at 6 cm), ARRIVE trial elective induction at 39 weeks, ACOG postpartum hemorrhage bundle with stepwise uterotonics + TXA within 3 hours (WOMAN trial), USMEC 2024 contraception eligibility, NAMS 2022 hormone therapy 'window of opportunity,' CDC 2021 STI treatment (doxycycline first-line for chlamydia, ceftriaxone 500 mg for gonorrhea), PALM-COEIN AUB workup, and letrozole as first-line ovulation induction for PCOS per ASRM.

How should I study for this exam?

Use a structured 6-12 month plan layered on your clinical practice. Map to the BCOG content outline: begin with obstetrics (prenatal care, antenatal complications, L&D, operative OB, postpartum), then gynecology (infections, contraception, AUB, menopause, pelvic pain), and close with oncology screening, urogynecology, and infertility. Use ACOG Practice Bulletins and Committee Opinions, USPSTF 2024 cervical cancer screening, CDC 2021 STI guidelines, USMEC 2024, NAMS 2022 hormone therapy, ASRM and SMFM consensus statements, and high-volume MCQ practice. Complete 2-3 timed full-length mock exams.