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100+ Free ABPS Geriatric Medicine Practice Questions

Pass your ABPS Geriatric Medicine Certification Examination exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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An 82-year-old woman with mild dementia is started on diphenhydramine 25 mg nightly for insomnia. According to the AGS 2023 Beers Criteria, why is this medication potentially inappropriate?

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABPS Geriatric Medicine Exam

200

Total MCQ Items

ABPS BCGM Geriatric Medicine exam

~4 hr

Total Exam Time

Computer-based testing

~14%

Dementia/Cognitive Weight

Largest single domain on 2026 BCGM content outline

~$2,000

2026 Exam Fee

ABPS/BCGM (verify current schedule)

≥12 sec

TUG Fall-Risk Threshold

CDC STEADI algorithm

7.5-8.0%

A1C Target Most Older Adults

ADA Standards of Care 2026 (relax to 8.0-8.5% in complex/poor health)

The ABPS Geriatric Medicine Certification Exam is a 200-item, ~4-hour computer-based test administered by BCGM/ABPS for MD/DO physicians caring for older adults. The blueprint emphasizes Polypharmacy/Beers (~12%), End-of-Life/Palliative/Pain (~12%), Dementia/Cognitive (~14%), Delirium (~10%), Falls/Gait (~10%), and chronic-disease management in elderly. The 2026 fee is approximately $2,000; eligibility requires MD/DO with unrestricted license and geriatric fellowship or qualifying experience.

Sample ABPS Geriatric Medicine Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABPS Geriatric Medicine exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1An 82-year-old woman with mild dementia is started on diphenhydramine 25 mg nightly for insomnia. According to the AGS 2023 Beers Criteria, why is this medication potentially inappropriate?
A.It causes hypoglycemia in older adults
B.It is a strong anticholinergic associated with cognitive impairment, delirium, and falls
C.It is contraindicated with cholinesterase inhibitors
D.It is metabolized by CYP3A4 and interacts with grapefruit
Explanation: First-generation antihistamines such as diphenhydramine are explicitly listed in the AGS 2023 Beers Criteria as PIMs to avoid in adults ≥65 because of strong anticholinergic effects causing cognitive impairment, delirium, falls, dry mouth, urinary retention, and constipation. Non-pharmacologic sleep hygiene is first-line.
2Which of the following best describes the Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) algorithm for diagnosing delirium?
A.Acute onset/fluctuating course AND inattention AND (disorganized thinking OR altered LOC)
B.Inattention AND disorganized thinking AND visual hallucinations
C.Acute onset AND memory deficit AND apraxia
D.Fluctuating course OR inattention OR altered level of consciousness
Explanation: CAM requires Feature 1 (acute onset and fluctuating course) AND Feature 2 (inattention) AND EITHER Feature 3 (disorganized thinking) OR Feature 4 (altered level of consciousness). Both features 1 and 2 are mandatory plus at least one of 3 or 4.
3A 78-year-old completes the Timed Up and Go test in 14 seconds. According to the CDC STEADI algorithm, what does this result indicate?
A.Normal mobility — no further fall assessment needed
B.Increased fall risk warranting multifactorial assessment and intervention
C.Need for immediate hip protector prescription
D.Indication for inpatient physical therapy admission
Explanation: A TUG ≥12 seconds indicates increased fall risk per CDC STEADI. The recommended response is multifactorial assessment (medications, vision, postural hypotension, gait/balance, home hazards, vitamin D status) and tailored interventions such as Otago or tai chi exercise, medication review, and home safety modification.
4Which combination of findings BEST defines the Fried frailty phenotype?
A.Cognitive impairment, depression, falls
B.Unintentional weight loss, exhaustion, low activity, slow gait, weak grip
C.Sarcopenia, osteoporosis, balance impairment
D.Polypharmacy, cognitive decline, social isolation
Explanation: The Fried phenotype defines frailty by 5 criteria: unintentional weight loss ≥10 lb in past year, self-reported exhaustion, low physical activity, slow gait speed, and weak grip strength. ≥3 = frail, 1-2 = prefrail, 0 = robust.
5An 88-year-old man with a Stage 3 sacral pressure injury has full-thickness skin loss with visible subcutaneous fat but no exposed bone. What NPIAP 2016 stage does Stage 3 correspond to?
A.Partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis
B.Full-thickness skin loss; subcutaneous fat may be visible; bone/tendon/muscle NOT exposed
C.Full-thickness skin and tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle
D.Persistent non-blanchable deep red/maroon/purple discoloration
Explanation: Stage 3 pressure injury per NPIAP 2016 is full-thickness skin loss in which subcutaneous fat may be visible, but bone, tendon, or muscle are NOT exposed. Once bone/tendon/muscle is exposed, the injury is Stage 4. Stage 2 is partial-thickness with exposed dermis. Deep tissue pressure injury is the persistent discoloration variant.
6A 75-year-old woman has urge incontinence. She has mild cognitive impairment. Which initial treatment is BEST?
A.Oxybutynin extended-release 10 mg daily
B.Bladder training and pelvic floor exercises
C.Indwelling Foley catheter
D.Tolterodine 4 mg daily
Explanation: Behavioral therapy (bladder training, timed/prompted voiding, pelvic floor exercises) is first-line for urge incontinence in older adults — especially those with cognitive impairment. Anticholinergic OAB drugs (oxybutynin, tolterodine) carry significant anticholinergic burden and are flagged in the AGS Beers Criteria. Mirabegron (β3 agonist) is a preferred pharmacologic alternative when needed.
7A 70-year-old woman scores 8/15 on the GDS-15. This score is most consistent with what?
A.Normal mood
B.Suggests depression — clinical interview warranted
C.Severe dementia
D.Anxiety disorder, not depression
Explanation: On the 15-item Geriatric Depression Scale, a score ≥5 suggests depression and warrants further clinical evaluation. A score of 8/15 is moderately elevated and consistent with depression. The GDS is a screening tool — diagnosis requires clinical interview using DSM-5 criteria.
8A 79-year-old with end-stage CHF, NYHA IV, has had three hospitalizations in 6 months and weight loss. The family asks about hospice eligibility. Which is the Medicare hospice benefit eligibility criterion?
A.Patient must be DNR/DNI
B.Two physicians certify life expectancy ≤6 months if disease runs its usual course
C.Patient must have a terminal cancer diagnosis
D.Patient must be unable to swallow
Explanation: Medicare hospice benefit requires that two physicians (the attending and the hospice medical director) certify that the patient has a prognosis of 6 months or less if the illness runs its usual course. The patient must elect hospice and forgo curative treatment for the terminal diagnosis. DNR is not required.
9An 84-year-old with persistent osteoarthritis pain takes ibuprofen 400 mg TID. He has CKD stage 3 and hypertension. What is the BEST recommendation per AGS persistent pain guidelines?
A.Continue ibuprofen — safer than opioids in older adults
B.Switch to scheduled acetaminophen and discontinue chronic NSAID
C.Add naproxen for synergy
D.Initiate amitriptyline for chronic pain
Explanation: AGS persistent pain guidelines recommend acetaminophen (up to 3 g/day) as first-line for persistent musculoskeletal pain in older adults and explicitly caution against chronic NSAIDs (GI bleeding, AKI, HTN, CHF). Amitriptyline is on the Beers list (anticholinergic). NSAIDs are particularly risky in CKD and HTN.
10Which form is a portable medical order signed by a clinician that travels with the patient across care settings, NOT an advance directive?
A.Living will
B.Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare
C.POLST/MOLST
D.HIPAA authorization
Explanation: POLST (Physician Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment) or MOLST in some states is a clinician-signed medical order that converts patient wishes about resuscitation, intubation, artificial nutrition/hydration, and intensity of care into actionable orders that travel across care settings. Advance directives (living will, DPOA-HC) are legal documents, not orders.

About the ABPS Geriatric Medicine Exam

The ABPS Geriatric Medicine Certification Examination, administered by the Board of Certification in Geriatric Medicine (BCGM) under the American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS), validates the competencies required to care for older adults. Content spans dementia and cognitive impairment (Alzheimer disease, dementia with Lewy bodies, vascular and frontotemporal dementia, anti-amyloid mAbs and ARIA monitoring), delirium (CAM and CAM-ICU, HELP bundles), falls and gait disorders (CDC STEADI, Timed Up and Go, gait speed), frailty and sarcopenia (Fried phenotype, Rockwood Clinical Frailty Scale, EWGSOP2), polypharmacy and the AGS 2023 Beers Criteria with STOPP/START, pressure injury staging and prevention (NPIAP 2016, Braden Scale), urinary incontinence (urge, stress, overflow, functional, mixed; DIAPPERS), depression in older adults (GDS-15, PHQ-9), end-of-life and palliative care (hospice eligibility, POLST/MOLST), advance care planning, AGS persistent pain guidelines, common chronic disease management (HF GDMT quadruple therapy, COPD GOLD 2026, diabetes A1C 7.5-8.0% per ADA 2026 in older adults, osteoporosis), elder abuse identification and APS reporting, and capacity/consent/ethics. Eligibility requires MD/DO with valid unrestricted license and completion of an accredited geriatric medicine fellowship or equivalent qualifying experience per BCGM policy.

Questions

200 scored questions

Time Limit

~4 hours CBT

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled score set by BCGM (modified Angoff standard)

Exam Fee

~$2,000 examination fee (ABPS/BCGM 2026 — verify current schedule) (American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS) — Board of Certification in Geriatric Medicine (BCGM))

ABPS Geriatric Medicine Exam Content Outline

~14%

Dementia & Cognitive Impairment

Alzheimer disease (amyloid/tau pathology, anti-amyloid monoclonal antibodies lecanemab and donanemab with ARIA-E and ARIA-H MRI monitoring per AAN appropriate use recommendations), Dementia with Lewy bodies (REM sleep behavior disorder, visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, severe neuroleptic sensitivity), vascular dementia (stepwise decline, vascular risk factors), frontotemporal dementia (behavioral variant and PPA language variants), mild cognitive impairment, Mini-Cog/MoCA/SLUMS screening, BPSD with non-pharmacologic first-line management (DICE approach), cholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine), memantine for moderate-severe AD, AGS Beers caution against antipsychotics for BPSD (FDA black-box mortality warning).

~12%

Polypharmacy & AGS 2023 Beers Criteria

AGS 2023 Beers Criteria PIMs in adults ≥65: first-generation antihistamines (diphenhydramine), long-acting and short-acting benzodiazepines, sliding-scale insulin, glyburide and chlorpropamide, chronic NSAIDs, tertiary TCAs (amitriptyline), strong anticholinergics (oxybutynin), antipsychotics for BPSD (avoid except severe danger), PPIs >8 weeks without indication, skeletal muscle relaxants (cyclobenzaprine, methocarbamol). STOPP/START criteria, anticholinergic burden score, prescribing cascades, deprescribing principles, drug-disease interactions, renal dose adjustments (CrCl with Cockcroft-Gault), pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic changes with aging.

~12%

End-of-Life, Palliative Care & Pain

Hospice eligibility (Medicare hospice benefit — physician certifies prognosis ≤6 months if disease runs usual course), POLST/MOLST forms (portable medical orders, NOT advance directives), advance directives and durable power of attorney for healthcare, surrogate decision-making hierarchy, AGS persistent pain guidelines (acetaminophen first-line up to 3 g/day, avoid chronic NSAIDs in older adults, opioids when needed with proactive bowel regimen), dyspnea management (low-dose opioids first-line), terminal secretions, palliative sedation, hospice levels of care (routine, continuous, GIP, respite), prognostic tools (Palliative Performance Scale, FAST stage 7c for dementia hospice eligibility).

~10%

Delirium

Confusion Assessment Method (CAM — acute onset/fluctuating + inattention + either disorganized thinking or altered level of consciousness) and CAM-ICU, hyperactive vs hypoactive vs mixed subtypes (hypoactive most common and most missed), hospital-acquired delirium prevention via HELP (Hospital Elder Life Program) bundles (orientation, early mobilization, sleep hygiene, hydration, vision/hearing aids, avoid restraints), risk factors and precipitants (infection, dehydration, anticholinergics, opioids, restraints, sleep disruption), distinguishing delirium from dementia and depression, non-pharmacologic management is first-line, low-dose haloperidol or quetiapine reserved for severe agitation/safety risk.

~10%

Falls, Gait & Mobility

CDC STEADI algorithm (Screen, Assess, Intervene), Timed Up and Go (TUG) ≥12 seconds suggests fall risk, 30-second chair stand, 4-stage balance test, gait speed <0.8 m/s indicates slow walking and increased mortality risk, orthostatic hypotension assessment (drop ≥20 mmHg systolic or ≥10 diastolic within 3 minutes of standing), USPSTF 2024 recommendation against routine vitamin D for fall prevention in community-dwelling adults ≥60 (Grade D — change from prior Grade I), exercise interventions (Otago, tai chi), home hazard modification, medication review and deprescribing of fall-risk-increasing drugs.

~8%

Frailty, Sarcopenia & Functional Status

Fried frailty phenotype (5 criteria: unintentional weight loss ≥10 lb, exhaustion, low physical activity, slow gait speed, weak grip strength — frail ≥3, prefrail 1-2), Rockwood Clinical Frailty Scale (1 very fit through 9 terminally ill), sarcopenia per EWGSOP2 (low muscle strength + low muscle quantity/quality, severe if low physical performance added), comprehensive geriatric assessment (CGA — multidisciplinary), ADLs (Katz — bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring, continence, feeding) and IADLs (Lawton — phone, shopping, cooking, housework, laundry, transportation, medications, finances), resistance exercise and protein intake (1.0-1.2 g/kg/day for healthy older adults), Mini Nutritional Assessment (MNA).

~8%

Urinary Incontinence & GU

Incontinence subtypes: urge (overactive bladder/detrusor overactivity), stress (sphincter weakness), overflow (BPH or detrusor underactivity), functional (cognitive/mobility), mixed. DIAPPERS reversible causes (Delirium, Infection, Atrophic vaginitis, Pharmaceuticals, Psychological, Excess urine output, Restricted mobility, Stool impaction). Post-void residual, urodynamics indications, behavioral therapy first-line (bladder training, pelvic floor exercises, prompted voiding), AGS Beers caution on anticholinergic OAB drugs (oxybutynin, tolterodine — anticholinergic burden), mirabegron β3 agonist as alternative, BPH management (alpha-blockers, 5-ARI), asymptomatic bacteriuria — DO NOT treat in older adults absent urinary symptoms (IDSA 2019).

~8%

Chronic Disease in Older Adults

Heart failure GDMT (ARNI/ACEI/ARB, beta-blocker, MRA, SGLT2 inhibitor — quadruple therapy for HFrEF; SGLT2i now also recommended for HFpEF per 2022 AHA/ACC/HFSA), COPD GOLD 2026 ABE assessment groups and triple therapy (LABA+LAMA+ICS) when indicated, diabetes A1C target 7.5-8.0% for most older adults per ADA Standards of Care 2026 (relax to 8.0-8.5% in complex/poor health), avoid sulfonylureas/sliding scale insulin (Beers), hypertension target <130/80 if tolerated per 2025 AHA/ACC update — individualize and watch orthostatic hypotension, osteoporosis (DXA T-score ≤-2.5; bisphosphonates first-line, denosumab, romosozumab for very high risk).

~7%

Depression & Mental Health

Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS-15 ≥5 suggests depression), PHQ-9, late-life depression presentation (somatic complaints, cognitive complaints — pseudodementia), suicide risk in older adults (highest rates in older white men ≥85), SSRIs first-line (sertraline and escitalopram preferred for tolerability — citalopram dose-limited to 20 mg in adults ≥60 due to QT prolongation), avoid TCAs and paroxetine (anticholinergic burden — Beers), psychotherapy options (Problem-Solving Therapy, CBT, IPT), late-life anxiety disorders, late-life bipolar disorder, alcohol use disorder screening (SMAST-G — Short Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test Geriatric).

~6%

Pressure Injury & Skin Care

NPIAP 2016 staging: Stage 1 intact skin with non-blanchable erythema, Stage 2 partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis, Stage 3 full-thickness skin loss (subcutaneous fat may be visible), Stage 4 full-thickness skin and tissue loss with exposed bone/tendon/muscle, unstageable (obscured by slough/eschar), deep tissue pressure injury (persistent non-blanchable deep red/maroon/purple discoloration). Braden Scale risk assessment (≤18 at risk), repositioning q2h in bed and q1h in chair, support surfaces (high-specification foam, alternating pressure), nutrition optimization, moisture management, debridement options (autolytic, enzymatic, mechanical, sharp), distinguish from MASD (moisture-associated skin damage).

~3%

Elder Abuse

Types of elder mistreatment: physical abuse, sexual abuse, emotional/psychological abuse, financial exploitation, neglect (caregiver neglect and self-neglect), abandonment. Screening tools include the Elder Abuse Suspicion Index (EASI). Risk factors include cognitive impairment, social isolation, caregiver burden, and substance use. Mandatory reporting laws vary by state — Adult Protective Services (APS) is the primary reporting agency for community-dwelling adults; state long-term care ombudsman for facility residents. Documentation requirements, capacity assessment of the older adult to refuse intervention, safety planning, and multidisciplinary response.

~2%

Capacity, Consent & Ethics

Capacity is decision-specific (not global) and clinical; competence is the legal determination by a court. The four pillars of decision-making capacity: understanding, appreciation, reasoning, and expression of choice. Capacity assessment tools (Aid to Capacity Evaluation — ACE; MacArthur Competence Assessment Tool for Treatment — MacCAT-T). Surrogate decision-making hierarchy varies by state law. Substituted judgment (what the patient would have wanted) vs best interest standard. Informed consent for older adults with MCI/early dementia. Goals-of-care conversations using the Serious Illness Conversation Guide. Driving safety and physician reporting obligations vary by state.

How to Pass the ABPS Geriatric Medicine Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled score set by BCGM (modified Angoff standard)
  • Exam length: 200 questions
  • Time limit: ~4 hours CBT
  • Exam fee: ~$2,000 examination fee (ABPS/BCGM 2026 — verify current schedule)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABPS Geriatric Medicine Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorize the AGS 2023 Beers Criteria high-yield PIMs in adults ≥65: first-generation antihistamines (diphenhydramine — anticholinergic), benzodiazepines (any duration — falls/cognition), sliding-scale insulin alone (hypoglycemia without basal coverage), glyburide and chlorpropamide (prolonged hypoglycemia), chronic NSAIDs (GI/renal/cardiovascular), tertiary TCAs (amitriptyline — anticholinergic), strong anticholinergics, antipsychotics for BPSD (FDA black-box mortality), PPIs >8 weeks without indication, skeletal muscle relaxants. This single topic generates the most exam items.
2CAM (Confusion Assessment Method) algorithm for delirium = Feature 1 (acute onset and fluctuating course) AND Feature 2 (inattention) AND EITHER Feature 3 (disorganized thinking) OR Feature 4 (altered level of consciousness). Hypoactive delirium is the most common subtype and the most often missed. HELP (Hospital Elder Life Program) bundles prevent ~40% of incident delirium. Non-pharmacologic management is first-line; reserve low-dose haloperidol or quetiapine for severe agitation or safety risk.
3CDC STEADI falls algorithm pearls: TUG ≥12 seconds = increased fall risk; gait speed <0.8 m/s = slow and predicts mortality; orthostatic hypotension drop ≥20 mmHg systolic or ≥10 mmHg diastolic within 3 minutes of standing. USPSTF 2024 changed routine vitamin D for fall prevention in community-dwelling adults ≥60 to Grade D (recommend against) — this is a flip from prior recommendations and very testable. Multifactorial interventions (Otago, tai chi, home hazard, medication review) outperform single interventions.
4Fried frailty phenotype 5 criteria: unintentional weight loss ≥10 lb in past year, self-reported exhaustion, low physical activity, slow gait speed (lowest 20% by gender/height), weak grip strength (lowest 20% by gender/BMI). Frail = ≥3 criteria; prefrail = 1-2; robust = 0. Rockwood Clinical Frailty Scale runs 1 (very fit) through 9 (terminally ill). Sarcopenia per EWGSOP2 = low muscle strength + confirmed by low muscle quantity/quality (severe if low physical performance added).
5NPIAP 2016 pressure injury staging: Stage 1 = intact skin, non-blanchable erythema; Stage 2 = partial-thickness skin loss, exposed dermis (shallow ulcer or intact/ruptured serum-filled blister); Stage 3 = full-thickness skin loss, subcutaneous fat may be visible; Stage 4 = full-thickness skin AND tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle; Unstageable = obscured by slough/eschar; Deep Tissue Pressure Injury = persistent non-blanchable deep red/maroon/purple discoloration. Braden Scale ≤18 = at-risk. Reposition q2h.
6Diabetes A1C targets in older adults per ADA Standards of Care 2026: healthy older adults with few comorbidities and intact cognition/function = A1C 7.0-7.5%; complex/intermediate health (multiple chronic, mild-moderate cognitive/functional impairment) = A1C <8.0%; very complex/poor health (LTC, end-stage chronic illness, moderate-severe cognitive impairment) = A1C <8.5% with avoidance of hypoglycemia. Avoid sulfonylureas (especially glyburide) and sliding-scale insulin (Beers). Hypertension target <130/80 if tolerated per 2025 AHA/ACC update — individualize, monitor for orthostasis.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABPS Geriatric Medicine Certification Examination?

The ABPS Geriatric Medicine Certification Examination is administered by the Board of Certification in Geriatric Medicine (BCGM) under the American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS). It validates the competencies required to care for older adults across dementia and cognitive impairment, delirium, falls and gait disorders, frailty and sarcopenia, polypharmacy and AGS Beers Criteria, pressure injury, urinary incontinence, depression, end-of-life and palliative care, chronic disease management in elderly, elder abuse, and capacity/consent/ethics.

Who is eligible to take the BCGM Geriatric Medicine exam?

Candidates must hold an MD, DO, or equivalent doctoral medical degree with a valid unrestricted medical license and have completed an accredited geriatric medicine fellowship or equivalent qualifying clinical experience caring for older adults per BCGM policy. ABPS evaluates alternate training pathways case-by-case and requires letters of reference attesting to clinical experience in geriatric medicine.

What is the format of the exam?

The BCGM Geriatric Medicine exam is a computer-based test of approximately 200 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions over about 4 hours. Items are blueprinted to the BCGM content outline, which emphasizes dementia/cognitive impairment (~14%), polypharmacy/Beers (~12%), end-of-life/palliative/pain (~12%), delirium (~10%), falls/gait (~10%), frailty/sarcopenia (~8%), incontinence/GU (~8%), chronic disease in older adults (~8%), depression (~7%), pressure injury (~6%), elder abuse (~3%), and capacity/ethics (~2%). Testing is offered at secure CBT centers.

How much does the 2026 exam cost?

The 2026 BCGM Geriatric Medicine examination fee is approximately $2,000 — always verify the current schedule on the ABPS website. Candidates should also budget for board review materials such as the AGS Geriatrics Review Syllabus (GRS11) and live or online review courses, as well as ongoing Continuous Certification (CC) fees after passing. Cancellation and refund policies follow the BCGM schedule with decreasing refunds as the exam date approaches.

When is the 2026 exam administered?

BCGM offers the Geriatric Medicine examination at multiple test administrations each year per the published ABPS/BCGM schedule. Candidates schedule specific appointments after application approval. Exact 2026 dates should be confirmed on the ABPS Geriatric Medicine page.

How is the exam scored?

BCGM uses criterion-referenced scaled scoring with a passing standard set by subject-matter experts using the modified Angoff method. A candidate's pass/fail result depends on performance relative to the fixed cut-score, not on other candidates. Score reports typically include domain-level feedback so candidates can identify their strongest and weakest content areas.

What are the highest-yield 2026 topics?

Highest-yield 2026 topics include the AGS 2023 Beers Criteria PIMs (first-gen antihistamines, benzodiazepines, sliding-scale insulin, glyburide, chronic NSAIDs, anticholinergics, antipsychotics for BPSD), CDC STEADI falls algorithm with TUG ≥12 seconds, Fried frailty phenotype and Rockwood CFS, CAM/CAM-ICU and HELP bundles, NPIAP 2016 pressure injury staging, anti-amyloid monoclonal antibodies (lecanemab/donanemab) with ARIA-E/H monitoring, ADA 2026 individualized A1C targets in older adults (7.5-8.0% most; 8.0-8.5% complex/poor health), HF GDMT quadruple therapy, GOLD 2026 COPD ABE, hospice eligibility (≤6 months), POLST vs advance directives, AGS persistent pain (acetaminophen first-line), and elder abuse APS reporting.

How should I study for this exam?

Use a structured 6-12 month plan layered on your geriatric clinical work. Map to the BCGM content outline: begin with cognitive impairment, mood, and delirium; then falls, frailty, function, and Beers/deprescribing; then skin, GU, and chronic disease in older adults; close with palliative care, pain, elder abuse, and capacity/ethics. Use the AGS Geriatrics Review Syllabus (GRS11) as the primary text, supplement with UpToDate geriatric topics, AGS 2023 Beers Criteria pocket reference, CDC STEADI materials, and high-volume MCQ practice. Complete 2-3 timed full-length mock exams in the final month.