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100+ Free ABPS General Surgery Practice Questions

Pass your ABPS General Surgery Certification Examination exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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A 25-year-old presents with 18 hours of periumbilical pain migrating to the right lower quadrant, anorexia, and a low-grade fever. Imaging confirms uncomplicated acute appendicitis. What is the standard surgical management?

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B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABPS General Surgery Exam

250

Total MCQ Items

ABPS BCGS General Surgery exam

~5 hr

Total Exam Time

Computer-based testing

~22%

Alimentary Tract Weight

Largest single domain on 2026 BCGS content outline

~$2,000

2026 Exam Fee

ABPS/BCGS (verify current schedule)

5 yr

Required Residency

Accredited general surgery residency completion

1:1:1

MTP Ratio

Plasma:platelets:RBC per ATLS 10th edition

The ABPS General Surgery Certification Exam is a 250-item, ~5-hour computer-based test administered by BCGS/ABPS for board-eligible general surgeons. The blueprint weighs Alimentary Tract (~22%), Hepatobiliary/Pancreas (~13%), Breast (~10%), Hernia/Abdominal Wall (~9%), Critical Care (~9%), Trauma/Burns (~9%), Endocrine (~8%), Vascular Access (~7%), Surgical Oncology/Soft Tissue (~7%), and Perioperative/Infections (~6%). The 2026 fee is approximately $2,000; eligibility requires completion of an accredited general surgery residency (typically 5 years).

Sample ABPS General Surgery Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABPS General Surgery exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 25-year-old presents with 18 hours of periumbilical pain migrating to the right lower quadrant, anorexia, and a low-grade fever. Imaging confirms uncomplicated acute appendicitis. What is the standard surgical management?
A.Open appendectomy via McBurney incision
B.Laparoscopic appendectomy
C.Antibiotics alone with no surgery
D.Watchful waiting for 48 hours
Explanation: Laparoscopic appendectomy is the standard of care for uncomplicated acute appendicitis in most centers, offering shorter hospital stay, less wound infection, and faster recovery vs open. Antibiotics-only is an option in selected uncomplicated cases but with higher recurrence.
2A patient with prior open appendectomy presents with bilious vomiting, abdominal distention, and CT showing transition point with no strangulation features. Initial management includes:
A.Immediate operative exploration
B.Nasogastric decompression, IV fluids, electrolyte correction, and serial exam; consider Gastrografin challenge
C.Oral intake
D.Discharge home
Explanation: Adhesive small bowel obstruction without strangulation is managed initially with NPO, NG decompression, fluid resuscitation, and electrolyte correction. Gastrografin (water-soluble contrast) challenge is both prognostic and therapeutic. Surgery for failure of nonoperative management or signs of strangulation/ischemia.
3An 80-year-old presents with massive abdominal distention and a 'coffee bean' sign on plain film. CT confirms sigmoid volvulus without bowel ischemia. What is the appropriate first step?
A.Emergency sigmoidectomy with colostomy
B.Endoscopic detorsion with rectal tube placement followed by elective sigmoidectomy during the same admission
C.No treatment
D.Bowel rest only
Explanation: For sigmoid volvulus without ischemia, endoscopic decompression and detorsion is initial management with rectal tube placement. Elective sigmoidectomy during the same admission is recommended due to high recurrence rates. Emergency surgery is reserved for failed endoscopic decompression or signs of ischemia/peritonitis.
4A 60-year-old has a screening colonoscopy showing a sigmoid adenocarcinoma. CT staging is needed to evaluate for which key prognostic factor?
A.Tumor histology
B.Distant metastatic disease (liver, lung, peritoneum) and locoregional extent
C.Patient functional status
D.Family history
Explanation: Preoperative staging for colon cancer includes contrast-enhanced CT chest/abdomen/pelvis to assess for distant metastases (especially liver and lung) and locoregional disease, CEA, complete colonoscopy to exclude synchronous lesions, and tissue MMR/MSI testing. Rectal cancer adds pelvic MRI.
5A patient with acute uncomplicated sigmoid diverticulitis (Hinchey I — pericolic abscess <4 cm) is hemodynamically stable without peritonitis. Which is the appropriate management?
A.Emergency laparotomy with Hartmann procedure
B.Outpatient or inpatient antibiotic therapy with bowel rest; consider drainage if abscess >4 cm
C.No treatment
D.Total colectomy
Explanation: Hinchey I uncomplicated diverticulitis is managed with antibiotics and bowel rest (with selected mild cases potentially managed without antibiotics per recent trials). Hinchey II (pelvic abscess) often requires percutaneous drainage. Hinchey III (purulent peritonitis) and IV (feculent peritonitis) require urgent surgery.
6A patient with forceful vomiting develops sudden severe chest pain, subcutaneous emphysema, and left pleural effusion. CT confirms esophageal perforation. What is the appropriate management?
A.Observation
B.Broad-spectrum antibiotics, IV PPI, NPO, and operative repair (or endoscopic stenting in selected cases) within 24 hours
C.Oral antibiotics only
D.Bowel rest
Explanation: Boerhaave syndrome (spontaneous esophageal rupture) requires aggressive management with broad-spectrum antibiotics, antifungals, IV PPI, NPO/nutrition support, and operative repair (primary repair with buttress, esophageal exclusion, or T-tube) within 24 hours for best outcomes. Endoscopic stenting is emerging for selected stable patients.
7Which is the most common surgical procedure for refractory GERD with documented incompetent LES on manometry and pH testing?
A.Heller myotomy
B.Laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication (360-degree wrap)
C.Linx magnetic sphincter augmentation alone (without alternative consideration)
D.Roux-en-Y gastric bypass
Explanation: Laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication (360-degree wrap) is the most common antireflux surgery. Toupet (270-degree posterior) is favored for impaired esophageal motility. Linx is an alternative for selected patients. Preoperative manometry confirms adequate motility, and pH testing confirms abnormal acid exposure.
8A patient with achalasia confirmed on manometry desires definitive treatment. Which procedure has high long-term efficacy?
A.Botulinum toxin injection
B.Pneumatic dilation or laparoscopic Heller myotomy with partial fundoplication, or per-oral endoscopic myotomy (POEM)
C.Nissen fundoplication
D.Subtotal esophagectomy
Explanation: Definitive achalasia treatment options include pneumatic dilation, laparoscopic Heller myotomy with Dor or Toupet partial fundoplication (for reflux protection), and POEM (peroral endoscopic myotomy). Botulinum toxin is a temporizing measure. POEM offers comparable efficacy to Heller but with higher reflux rates.
9A patient with upper GI bleeding has endoscopy showing an actively bleeding duodenal ulcer with visible vessel. What is the next step?
A.Conservative management
B.Endoscopic intervention with epinephrine injection plus a second modality (thermal or clip), IV PPI infusion, and H. pylori testing/treatment
C.Surgical exploration
D.Discharge home
Explanation: High-risk bleeding ulcers (Forrest Ia-IIa) require dual endoscopic therapy (combination injection + thermal or mechanical), IV PPI bolus then continuous or intermittent infusion, and H. pylori testing/treatment. Second-look endoscopy in selected cases. Surgery (vagotomy/oversewing) reserved for endoscopic failure.
10Which is an indication for surgery in Crohn disease?
A.Initial diagnosis
B.Stricture causing obstruction, fistula, abscess refractory to medical/percutaneous management, or refractory disease
C.Routine annual surgery
D.Perianal skin tag without abscess
Explanation: Crohn surgery indications: stricture causing obstruction, fistulizing disease (enteroenteric, enterovesical, enterocutaneous), intra-abdominal abscess (often after percutaneous drainage), perforation, hemorrhage refractory to medical management, refractory disease, and dysplasia/cancer. Bowel-sparing strictureplasty is preferred when feasible.

About the ABPS General Surgery Exam

The ABPS General Surgery Certification Examination, administered by the Board of Certification in General Surgery (BCGS) under the American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS), validates the cognitive knowledge and clinical judgment required for board-certified general surgeons. Content spans alimentary tract surgery (esophagus, stomach, small bowel, colon, rectum, anorectal), hepatobiliary and pancreatic surgery (Tokyo Guidelines, Whipple, IPMN Fukuoka, HCC Milan), breast surgery (NCCN guidelines, SLNB ACOSOG Z0011, BRCA, NSABP B-06, KEYNOTE-522), endocrine surgery (thyroid Bethesda/ATA 2015, parathyroid intra-op PTH, adrenal pheochromocytoma alpha-blockade, MEN syndromes), abdominal wall and hernia repair (Lichtenstein, TAR, Rives-Stoppa), surgical critical care (Surviving Sepsis Campaign 2021 hour-1 bundle, ARDSnet 6 mL/kg, abdominal compartment syndrome, KDIGO AKI), trauma and burns (ATLS 10th edition, MTP 1:1:1, AAST organ grading, Parkland formula), basic vascular and vascular access (AAA USPSTF, acute limb ischemia 6 Ps, KDOQI Fistula First), surgical oncology and skin/soft tissue (NCCN melanoma AJCC 8, sarcoma, GIST, NSTI/LRINEC), and perioperative care (SCIP antibiotic prophylaxis, Caprini VTE, ERAS, refeeding syndrome). Eligibility requires an MD/DO with unrestricted license and completion of an accredited general surgery residency.

Questions

250 scored questions

Time Limit

~5 hours CBT

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled score set by BCGS (modified Angoff standard)

Exam Fee

~$2,000 examination fee (ABPS/BCGS 2026 — verify current schedule) (American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS) — Board of Certification in General Surgery (BCGS))

ABPS General Surgery Exam Content Outline

~22%

Alimentary Tract Surgery

Esophagus (GERD, hiatal/paraesophageal hernia, achalasia — Heller myotomy + Dor fundoplication, Barrett's esophagus surveillance, esophageal cancer NCCN staging and CROSS neoadjuvant), stomach (peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, GIST — imatinib for KIT/PDGFRA mutations), small bowel (SBO with adhesions most common, Crohn's bowel-sparing, Meckel's rule of 2s, carcinoid), colon (diverticulitis Hinchey classification, ulcerative colitis, colorectal cancer NCCN — screening age 45, CEA surveillance), rectum (TME, neoadjuvant chemoradiation, TAMIS/TEM for early T1), anorectal (hemorrhoids Goligher grades, fissure, fistula Parks, perianal abscess).

~13%

Hepatobiliary & Pancreas Surgery

Biliary disease (cholecystitis Tokyo Guidelines 2018, choledocholithiasis ERCP, Mirizzi syndrome, gallbladder cancer incidental on path, cholangiocarcinoma — Bismuth-Corlette classification), liver (hepatocellular carcinoma — Milan criteria for transplant, colorectal liver metastases resectability, hepatic abscess pyogenic vs amebic, FNH vs hepatic adenoma management), pancreas (acute pancreatitis revised Atlanta — interstitial vs necrotizing, walled-off necrosis step-up approach; chronic pancreatitis pain management; pancreatic adenocarcinoma — Whipple pancreaticoduodenectomy; IPMN — Fukuoka high-risk stigmata; pancreatic NETs including insulinoma Whipple's triad and gastrinoma Zollinger-Ellison).

~10%

Breast Surgery

Breast cancer NCCN — screening mammography, BRCA1/2 testing criteria and prophylactic mastectomy, lumpectomy + RT equivalent survival to mastectomy (NSABP B-06), SLNB (ACOSOG Z0011 — T1-T2 cN0 with 1-2 positive SLN may skip ALND), neoadjuvant for triple-negative/HER2+ (KEYNOTE-522 pembrolizumab), endocrine therapy (tamoxifen premenopausal, aromatase inhibitors postmenopausal); DCIS (Van Nuys Prognostic Index), LCIS observation vs risk reduction, inflammatory breast cancer (cT4d) neoadjuvant first, Paget's disease of the nipple, fibroadenoma vs phyllodes tumor margins, gynecomastia.

~9%

Abdominal Wall & Hernia

Inguinal hernia (Hesselbach's triangle anatomy, direct vs indirect; Lichtenstein tension-free mesh repair, TEP and TAPP laparoscopic, watchful waiting acceptable for asymptomatic men), femoral hernia (higher incarceration risk — repair when found), ventral and incisional hernia (component separation — anterior Ramirez vs posterior TAR transversus abdominis release; Rives-Stoppa retromuscular; mesh choice — synthetic vs biologic by CDC wound class), umbilical and epigastric hernia, hiatal/paraesophageal hernia repair (Nissen 360 vs Toupet 270/Dor partial fundoplication), parastomal hernia, Spigelian and obturator hernias.

~9%

Surgical Critical Care

Shock classification (hypovolemic, cardiogenic, distributive, obstructive), Surviving Sepsis Campaign 2021 hour-1 bundle (lactate, blood cultures before antibiotics, broad-spectrum antibiotics within 1 hour, 30 mL/kg crystalloid for hypotension or lactate ≥4, vasopressor — norepinephrine first-line, target MAP ≥65), mechanical ventilation (ARDSnet 6 mL/kg ideal body weight, plateau <30, prone positioning >12 hr for P/F <150, ECMO criteria), AKI KDIGO staging and CRRT indications, abdominal compartment syndrome (WSACS — IAP >20 with new organ dysfunction), delirium (CAM-ICU, limit benzodiazepines), VAP/CLABSI/CAUTI prevention bundles, stress ulcer prophylaxis.

~9%

Trauma & Burns

ATLS 10th edition primary survey (ABCDE), FAST and eFAST, REBOA indications (zone 1 vs zone 3), massive transfusion protocol 1:1:1 plasma:platelets:RBC, permissive hypotension and damage control resuscitation, AAST organ injury grading (spleen, liver, kidney — high-grade often nonoperative if hemodynamically stable), pelvic fracture binder/preperitoneal packing/angioembolization, traumatic brain injury (Monro-Kellie, ICP <22, CPP 60-70), spinal cord injury, blunt vs penetrating chest trauma; burns — Parkland formula 4 mL/kg/%TBSA LR with half in first 8 hr, airway concern with facial/inhalation injury, escharotomy for circumferential burns, ABA transfer criteria.

~8%

Endocrine Surgery

Thyroid (Bethesda system FNA cytology I-VI, papillary thyroid cancer — lobectomy vs total thyroidectomy ATA 2015, follicular/Hurthle, medullary — RET mutation in MEN2 prophylactic thyroidectomy, anaplastic), parathyroid (primary hyperparathyroidism — sestamibi/4D-CT localization, focused vs bilateral exploration, intraoperative PTH ≥50% drop criterion), adrenal (incidentaloma >4 cm or functional, pheochromocytoma — alpha-blockade first then beta to avoid hypertensive crisis, Conn's primary hyperaldosteronism, Cushing's syndrome workup, adrenocortical carcinoma), MEN syndromes (MEN1 — 3 P's: parathyroid/pancreas/pituitary; MEN2A/2B — RET protooncogene).

~7%

Vascular Access & Basic Vascular

Hemodialysis access (KDOQI Fistula First — AV fistula > graft > tunneled catheter; brachiocephalic and radiocephalic configurations; complications — steal syndrome, pseudoaneurysm, thrombosis), central venous access (subclavian vs IJ vs femoral risk profiles, ultrasound guidance, pneumothorax recognition and management), AAA (USPSTF screening — men 65-75 ever-smokers; repair threshold ≥5.5 cm, rapid expansion >0.5 cm/6 mo, symptomatic; EVAR vs open), acute limb ischemia (6 Ps — pain/pallor/pulselessness/paresthesia/paralysis/poikilothermia; Rutherford I-III; heparin, embolectomy, fasciotomy for compartment syndrome), carotid disease basics, mesenteric ischemia (SMA embolus most common; chronic — postprandial pain, sitophobia).

~7%

Surgical Oncology, Skin & Soft Tissue

Melanoma (Breslow thickness, AJCC 8 staging, SLNB for ≥0.8 mm or thin high-risk; WLE margins 0.5-2 cm based on thickness; adjuvant anti-PD-1 nivolumab/pembrolizumab for stage III), non-melanoma skin cancer (BCC and SCC — Mohs micrographic surgery for H-zone and high-risk lesions), Merkel cell carcinoma (aggressive — wide excision + SLNB + adjuvant RT), soft-tissue sarcoma (extremity — limb-sparing surgery + RT; retroperitoneal — en bloc resection of involved organs; histologic subtype drives systemic therapy), GIST (KIT/PDGFRA — imatinib adjuvant for high-risk per Miettinen-Lasota), desmoid (often observed first per NCCN), necrotizing soft-tissue infection (LRINEC ≥6, emergency wide debridement, broad-spectrum antibiotics including clindamycin for toxin suppression).

~6%

Perioperative Care, Nutrition & Surgical Infections

Preoperative risk stratification (ASA class, RCRI, NSQIP risk calculator, frailty scores), antibiotic prophylaxis (SCIP — cefazolin within 60 minutes, redose every 4 hr or blood loss >1,500 mL; vancomycin within 120 min for MRSA risk), VTE prophylaxis (Caprini score, mechanical + pharmacologic), perioperative glycemic control, ERAS protocols (carbohydrate loading, multimodal opioid-sparing analgesia, early enteral feeding, early ambulation); fluids and electrolytes (hypo/hypernatremia correction rates to avoid central pontine myelinolysis, hyperkalemia management, hypocalcemia post-thyroidectomy — Chvostek/Trousseau); nutrition (enteral preferred when gut works, refeeding syndrome — phosphate/thiamine/magnesium replacement, immunonutrition); SSI prevention (CDC 2017), C. difficile colitis (oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin first-line per IDSA), intra-abdominal infection source control.

How to Pass the ABPS General Surgery Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled score set by BCGS (modified Angoff standard)
  • Exam length: 250 questions
  • Time limit: ~5 hours CBT
  • Exam fee: ~$2,000 examination fee (ABPS/BCGS 2026 — verify current schedule)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABPS General Surgery Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorize the Surviving Sepsis Campaign 2021 hour-1 bundle: measure lactate, draw blood cultures BEFORE antibiotics, broad-spectrum antibiotics within 1 hour of recognition, 30 mL/kg crystalloid for hypotension or lactate ≥4 mmol/L, and vasopressor (norepinephrine first-line) to maintain MAP ≥65 mm Hg. This is one of the most frequently tested critical care concepts.
2Know ACOSOG Z0011 cold: T1-T2 clinically node-negative breast cancer patients undergoing lumpectomy + whole-breast RT with 1-2 positive sentinel lymph nodes can SKIP completion ALND with no survival difference. This trial reshaped axillary management and shows up repeatedly on board exams.
3Master ATLS 10th edition primary survey ABCDE (Airway with C-spine, Breathing/ventilation, Circulation with hemorrhage control, Disability/neuro, Exposure) and the modern damage control resuscitation principles: permissive hypotension, MTP 1:1:1 plasma:platelets:RBC, REBOA for non-compressible torso hemorrhage (zone 1 supraceliac, zone 3 infrarenal), and TXA within 3 hours.
4Tokyo Guidelines 2018 for acute cholecystitis grades severity (Grade I mild, Grade II moderate with elevated WBC/palpable mass/duration >72 hr/local complications, Grade III severe with organ dysfunction). Early laparoscopic cholecystectomy within 72 hours is preferred for Grade I-II in fit patients; Grade III may require percutaneous cholecystostomy as bridge.
5Parkland burn formula: 4 mL/kg × %TBSA partial+full thickness × LR, half in first 8 hours from time of burn (NOT presentation), remaining half over next 16 hours. Adjust to urine output 0.5 mL/kg/hr in adults (1 mL/kg/hr in children). Always anticipate airway compromise with facial/inhalation injury — intubate early.
6Refeeding syndrome triad: hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia (also thiamine depletion → Wernicke's). Replace phosphate, K, Mg, and give thiamine BEFORE starting nutrition in malnourished patients (NPO >5 days, BMI <18.5, weight loss >10%). Start at 25-50% of caloric goal and advance over 4-7 days while monitoring electrolytes daily.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABPS General Surgery Certification Examination?

The ABPS General Surgery Certification Examination is administered by the Board of Certification in General Surgery (BCGS) under the American Board of Physician Specialties (ABPS). It validates the cognitive knowledge and clinical judgment required for board-certified general surgeons across alimentary tract surgery, hepatobiliary and pancreatic surgery, breast surgery, endocrine surgery, abdominal wall and hernia repair, surgical critical care, trauma and burns, vascular access, surgical oncology, and perioperative care.

Who is eligible to take the BCGS General Surgery exam?

Candidates must hold an MD, DO, or equivalent doctoral medical degree with a valid unrestricted medical license, have completed an accredited general surgery residency (typically 5 years) with documented operative case logs, and be in active surgical practice. Letters of reference attesting to clinical competence and ethical practice are required, and applicants must adhere to the ABPS Code of Ethics and Professionalism. Verify current eligibility on the ABPS BCGS page.

What is the format of the exam?

The BCGS General Surgery exam is a computer-based test of approximately 250 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions over roughly 5 hours. Items are blueprinted to the BCGS content outline: Alimentary Tract (~22%), Hepatobiliary/Pancreas (~13%), Breast (~10%), Hernia/Abdominal Wall (~9%), Surgical Critical Care (~9%), Trauma/Burns (~9%), Endocrine (~8%), Vascular Access/Basic Vascular (~7%), Surgical Oncology/Soft Tissue (~7%), and Perioperative Care/Infections (~6%). Testing is offered at secure CBT centers per the BCGS schedule.

How much does the 2026 exam cost?

The 2026 BCGS General Surgery examination fee is approximately $2,000 — always verify the current schedule on the ABPS website. Candidates should also budget for optional review courses (~$500-$2,000) and ongoing Continuous Certification (CC) fees after passing. Cancellation and refund policies follow the BCGS schedule with decreasing refunds as the exam date approaches.

When is the 2026 exam administered?

BCGS offers the General Surgery examination at multiple test administrations each year per the published ABPS/BCGS schedule. Candidates schedule specific appointments after application approval. Exact 2026 dates should be confirmed on the ABPS General Surgery page.

How is the exam scored?

BCGS uses criterion-referenced scaled scoring with a passing standard set by subject-matter experts using the modified Angoff method. A candidate's pass/fail result depends on performance relative to the fixed cut-score, not on other candidates. Score reports typically include domain-level feedback so candidates know their strongest and weakest content areas.

What are the highest-yield 2026 topics?

Highest-yield 2026 topics include current NCCN guidelines for breast cancer (KEYNOTE-522 pembrolizumab for triple-negative/HER2+, ACOSOG Z0011 SLNB), melanoma (AJCC 8, Breslow-based WLE margins, anti-PD-1 adjuvant), and colorectal (screening age 45, CEA surveillance, TME for rectal); ATLS 10th edition with MTP 1:1:1 and REBOA; Surviving Sepsis Campaign 2021 hour-1 bundle; ARDSnet 6 mL/kg ventilation; Tokyo Guidelines 2018 for cholecystitis; ATA 2015 thyroid cancer; KDIGO AKI staging; SCIP antibiotic prophylaxis; Caprini VTE; and the Parkland formula for burns.

How should I study for this exam?

Use a structured 6-12 month plan layered on your active surgical practice. Map to the BCGS content outline: begin with high-weight alimentary tract and hepatobiliary, then breast/endocrine/hernia/soft tissue, then critical care/trauma/vascular, and close with perioperative care and infections. Use Sabiston Textbook of Surgery, Schwartz's Principles of Surgery, NCCN Guidelines, ATLS 10th edition, Surviving Sepsis Campaign 2021, and high-volume MCQ practice. Complete 2-3 timed full-length mock exams and review error logs to target weakest areas.