Free SACPCMP CHSO Exam Flashcards

Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the SACPCMP Construction Health and Safety Officer (CHSO) Registration Examination (South Africa). See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.

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Which regulation lets a contractor appoint a construction health and safety officer, and on what basis?

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Card 1 of 50Registration, Ethics & Scope of Services

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About These SACPCMP CHSO Flashcards

These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the SACPCMP Construction Health and Safety Officer (CHSO) Registration Examination (South Africa). Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.

Topics Covered

Registration, Ethics & Scope of Services7 cards
Health & Safety Legislative Framework10 cards
H&S Management Systems, Plans & Documentation8 cards
Hazard Identification & Risk Management6 cards
Construction Site Operations & Technology7 cards
Inspections, Audits & H&S Performance4 cards
Incident Investigation & Emergency Preparedness5 cards
Occupational Hygiene, Health & Environment3 cards

Complete Flashcard Reference

Review every term in this set. Open any term to reveal its definition.

Which regulation lets a contractor appoint a construction health and safety officer, and on what basis?

Construction Regulation 8(5). The contractor appoints in writing, full-time or part-time, after consulting the client and weighing the project size, the degree of danger, and the accumulation of hazards or risks on site. Where the need is disputed, an inspector's decision is decisive.

What must a contractor confirm before appointing a construction health and safety officer?

Regulation 8(6) bars the appointment unless the contractor is reasonably satisfied the officer is registered with a statutory body approved by the Chief Inspector and has the necessary competencies and resources. The SACPCMP is that body for construction health and safety.

Which competency assessment does the SACPCMP set for the CHSO category?

A Council examination, not a professional interview. The gazetted 2026/27 fee schedule lists an examination fee for the Construction Health and Safety Officer and no interview fee, while the Professional Construction Health and Safety Agent pays an interview fee instead.

What are the minimum SACPCMP registration criteria for a Construction Health and Safety Officer?

Rule 4.4.13 requires an accredited qualification, RPL certificate, or recognised built environment or occupational qualification at NQF Level 5 with 120 credits, plus at least four years of relevant practical experience. The Health and Safety Manager needs NQF Level 6 and five years.

What happens to a CHSO applicant who scores 42% in the Council examination?

A score of 35% to 59% allows a re-write after paying the re-examination fee, and that re-write must be concluded within six months. Below 35% the application is not approved and is archived, so the applicant must apply again from the start.

What two obligations keep a SACPCMP registration active after you pass?

Comply with the SACPCMP CPD Policy and pay the annual fee, levies and certificate fee to renew the registration certificate. Rule 4.10.5 states that failing either requirement results in deregistration.

At which project stage does the gazetted CHSO scope of services begin?

Stage 4, tender documentation and procurement, where the officer attends tender clarification meetings and helps prepare project-specific health and safety documents. Stages 1 to 3 are marked not applicable for the CHSO; those client-side duties belong to the Construction Health and Safety Agent.

What does section 8(1) of the OHS Act require of every employer?

To provide and maintain, as far as is reasonably practicable, a working environment that is safe and without risk to employees' health. 'Reasonably practicable' is the statutory qualifier, so guaranteeing that no injury ever occurs is not the legal test.

Which OHS Act section protects the public and other employers' workers?

Section 9. Every employer must conduct the undertaking so that persons other than their own employees are not exposed to health or safety hazards, as far as is reasonably practicable. Self-employed persons carry the same duty.

Does a section 16(2) assignment relieve the chief executive officer of OHS Act liability?

No. Section 16(2) lets the CEO assign a section 16(1) duty to a person under their control, who acts under the CEO's control and directions, but the assignment is made without derogating from the CEO's own responsibility or liability. Section 16(3) also keeps the employer liable, subject to section 37.

When must an employer designate health and safety representatives, and how many?

Section 17: an employer with more than 20 employees designates representatives in writing within four months. Most workplaces need at least one representative for every 50 employees or part thereof; shops and offices need one for every 100.

What triggers a statutory health and safety committee, and how often must it meet?

Section 19: a committee is established for each workplace where two or more health and safety representatives have been designated. Section 19(4) requires meetings as often as necessary, but at least once every three months.

What does a section 37(2) mandatary agreement achieve?

It records in writing the arrangements and procedures ensuring the mandatary complies with the Act. Without that agreement, section 37(1) presumes the employer or user did the mandatary's act or omission, and they can be convicted and sentenced for it.

Which consequences make an incident reportable under section 24 of the OHS Act?

Death, unconsciousness, loss of a limb or part of a limb, or injury or illness likely to cause death, a permanent physical defect, or inability to work for at least 14 days. Major incidents and listed dangerous releases also qualify.

When does a client need a construction work permit rather than only a notification?

Regulation 3(1): where the work will exceed 180 days, involve more than 1 800 person days, or the contract value equals or exceeds thirteen million rand or CIDB grading level 6. The client applies to the provincial director at least 30 days beforehand.

Which four activities trigger a seven-day notification of construction work?

Regulation 4(1): excavation work, working at a height where there is a risk of falling, demolition of a structure, or use of explosives. The contractor notifies the provincial director in writing on a form similar to Annexure 2.

How quickly must an employer report an injured employee to the Compensation Commissioner?

Within seven days of receiving notice of the accident or learning of it another way, under COIDA section 39(1); late reporting now draws an administrative penalty. Since the 2022 Amendment Act commenced on 23 January 2026, claims prescribe after three years, not 12 months. Section 35 still bars a civil damages claim against the employer.

What two documents must a client produce before construction work is procured?

A baseline risk assessment, and then a suitable, sufficiently documented and coherent site-specific health and safety specification based on it (Regulation 5(1)(a) and (b)). The specification goes to the designer and must be included in the tender documents.

What must a principal contractor's health and safety plan be based on?

The client's documented health and safety specification (Regulation 7(1)(a)). The plan applies from the commencement date for the duration of the work and is reviewed and updated as work progresses. The client finally approves it under Regulation 5(1)(l).

Who may demand to see the health and safety file kept on site?

Regulation 7(1)(b): an inspector, the client, the client's agent, or a contractor. The file is opened and kept on site and must contain all documentation required by the Act and the Construction Regulations.

What must the principal contractor hand over when the construction work is complete?

A consolidated health and safety file to the client under Regulation 7(1)(e), including a record of all drawings, designs, materials used and similar information about the completed structure. Preparing that consolidated file is also a CHSO Stage 6 duty.

Who approves a subcontractor's health and safety plan?

The principal contractor. Regulation 7(2)(a) makes each contractor give the principal contractor a documented plan based on the relevant sections of the client's specification, and Regulation 7(1)(c)(x) requires the principal contractor to discuss, negotiate and finally approve it.

May a delivery driver or client representative enter the site without induction?

No. Regulation 7(5) bars any employee or person from entering without health and safety induction on the hazards prevalent at that time, and Regulation 7(6) extends induction and PPE to visitors. Induction records stay on site under Regulation 7(7).

What medical document must every construction employee hold?

A valid medical certificate of fitness specific to the construction work, issued by an occupational health practitioner in the form of Annexure 3 (Regulations 7(1)(g) and 7(8)). It is a health and safety file document that inspectors and clients routinely verify.

Why is a letter of good standing checked before a contractor starts work?

Regulations 5(1)(j) and 7(1)(c)(iv) require every principal contractor and contractor to be registered and in good standing with the compensation fund or a licensed compensation insurer under COIDA before any work commences on site.

Who must perform the contractor's construction risk assessments, and when?

A competent person appointed in writing, before any construction work commences and during that work (Regulation 9(1)). The resulting risk assessments form part of the health and safety plan applied on that site.

Name the five elements Regulation 9(1) requires in a construction risk assessment.

Identification of the hazards and risks; analysis and evaluation of them using a documented method; a documented plan with applicable safe work procedures to mitigate, reduce or control them; a monitoring plan; and a review plan.

What two events force a review of a construction risk assessment?

Regulation 9(7): design or construction changes that alter the risk profile, and the occurrence of an incident. Routine reviews still run at the intervals fixed in the assessment's own monitoring and review plan.

Whom must a contractor consult on monitoring and reviewing site risk assessments?

The health and safety committee, or where none exists, a representative trade union or representative group of employees (Regulation 9(5)). Copies must also be available on site for the inspector, client, agent, contractors, employees and representatives.

How does the client's baseline risk assessment differ from the contractor's risk assessment?

The baseline is the client's pre-project duty under Regulation 5(1)(a) and drives the health and safety specification. The Regulation 9 assessment is the contractor's site-specific duty, done by an appointed competent person, and forms part of the health and safety plan.

Where does the OHS Act place personal protective equipment in the control hierarchy?

Last. Section 8(2)(b) requires reasonably practicable steps to eliminate or mitigate the hazard before resorting to personal protective equipment, so a control plan that relies on PPE alone is a compliance weakness an auditor should raise.

What must a fall protection plan contain besides the risk assessment and training records?

Regulation 10(2): the process for evaluating workers' medical fitness for a fall risk position, procedures for inspecting, testing and maintaining fall protection equipment, and a rescue plan naming the procedure, personnel and equipment to recover a fallen person immediately.

When may fall arrest equipment be used instead of fall prevention?

Only where using fall prevention equipment is not reasonably practicable (Regulation 10(4)(d)). Prevention stops the fall happening, while arrest only limits the consequences, which is why the regulation makes arrest the fallback rather than the default.

List the five moments an excavation must be inspected.

Regulation 13(2)(h): daily before each shift, after every blasting operation, after an unexpected fall of ground, after damage to supports, and after rain. The appointed competent person records the results in a register kept on site.

How close must excavation access be, and how must the public be protected?

Access may not be further than six metres from where a worker is working inside the excavation. Excavations near the public need a barrier or fence at least one metre high plus warning illuminants or visible boundary indicators at night (Regulation 13(2)).

What controls does Regulation 12 place on formwork and other temporary works?

A temporary works designer is appointed in writing to design, inspect and approve the erected works. A competent person inspects immediately before, during and after concrete placement, after inclement weather and at least daily, and gives written authorisation before casting and before removal.

What are a contractor's two duties for access scaffolding?

Regulation 16(1): appoint a competent person in writing to supervise scaffolding operations and ensure erectors, team leaders and inspectors are competent. Regulation 16(2): scaffolding in use must comply with the safety standard incorporated into the Regulations under section 44 of the Act.

Name three fire precautions Regulation 29 requires on a construction site.

Sufficient and suitable storage for flammable liquids, solids and gases; prominent no-smoking notices where readily combustible or flammable materials are kept; and suitable fire-extinguishing equipment at strategic locations, maintained in good working order. Hot work needs prior precautions.

How often must the client audit health and safety, and when is the report due?

Regulation 5(1)(o) and (p): periodic audits and document verification at intervals agreed with the contractor, but at least once every 30 days, with a copy of the audit report given to the principal contractor within seven days.

What audit duty does Regulation 7 place on the principal contractor?

Regulation 7(1)(c)(vii): ensure periodic site audits and document verification at intervals agreed with each contractor, but at least once every 30 days. This runs separately from, and in addition to, the client's own 30-day audit cycle.

Who may stop construction work that breaches the health and safety plan?

Both the client, under Regulation 5(1)(q), and the principal contractor, under Regulation 7(1)(c)(viii). Either may stop a contractor whose activity threatens health and safety or departs from the client's specification or the approved health and safety plan.

What does the CHSO scope require once inspection and incident data has been collected?

Use trend analysis to identify system deficiencies and incident trends and outline improvements, participate in management reviews of the health and safety system, incorporate the resulting changes into the management system, and review and update the health and safety plan.

What are the two reporting duties after a worker loses a hand on site?

Report forthwith to the provincial director by telephone, facsimile or similar means, and give written notice within seven days on form WCL1 or WCL2 (General Administrative Regulation 8(1)). COIDA section 39 reporting to the Commissioner runs in parallel.

What incident record must be kept, on what form, and for how long?

General Administrative Regulation 9(1): a record in the form of Annexure 1, kept at the workplace for at least three years, covering every section 24 reportable incident plus any incident that needed medical treatment other than first aid.

How soon must a recordable incident be investigated, and who reviews the record?

The investigation must start within seven days of the incident and be finalised as soon as reasonably practicable, with the findings entered in Annexure 1 immediately afterwards. The health and safety committee examines the record at its next meeting.

May you clear the scene after a fatal fall so that work can resume?

No. Section 24(2) forbids disturbing the site or removing any article or substance involved without an inspector's consent after a death, likely-fatal injury or loss of a limb. Only rescue, removing casualties, or preventing a further incident is allowed.

What emergency duties does the gazetted CHSO scope of services carry?

Compile project-specific emergency response and preparedness plans and test the effectiveness of those plans. During the same construction stage the officer establishes health and safety communication structures, conducts site safety inductions and facilitates site health and safety meetings.

What first-aid cover does a site with 60 workers require?

General Safety Regulation 3: a first-aid box available and accessible at or near the workplace, and because more than 10 employees work there, at least one certificated first aider readily available for every group of up to 50 employees, so 60 workers need two. The one-per-100 ratio applies only to shops and offices.

What is the noise-rating limit under the Noise Exposure Regulations, 2024?

85 dBA for continuous noise (137 dBC peak for impulse noise): the eight-hour rating level at or above which specified counter-measures must be taken. The 2024 Regulations replace the Noise-Induced Hearing Loss Regulations from 6 September 2026 and add a lower 82 dBA noise action level that applies where noise combines with ototoxic chemicals or whole-body vibration.

What welfare facility ratios does Regulation 30 set for a construction site?

At least one shower facility for every 15 persons, at least one sanitary facility for each sex for every 30 workers, changing facilities for each sex, and sheltered eating areas. All must be kept clean, hygienic and maintained.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the pass mark for the SACPCMP CHSO examination?

60%. The SACPCMP Rules for Registration state that the pass rate for all Council examinations is 60%. Applicants scoring 35% to 59% may re-write after paying the re-examination fee, and the re-write must be concluded within six months. A score below 35% means the application is not approved and is archived, so the applicant must re-apply.

Does CHSO registration involve a written examination or a professional interview?

An examination. The Council's eligibility assessment routes applicants to either a professional interview or an examination, and the gazetted 2026/27 fee schedule lists an examination fee for the Construction Health and Safety Officer with no interview fee. The Professional Construction Health and Safety Agent sits a professional interview instead.

What qualification and experience do I need to register as a CHSO?

Rule 4.4.13 of the Rules for Registration requires an SACPCMP-accredited qualification, an RPL certificate, or an equivalent built environment or occupational qualification on the Recognition List at NQF Level 5 with 120 credits, plus a minimum of four years of relevant practical experience.

How many questions is the SACPCMP CHSO exam and how long does it take?

The SACPCMP does not publish an item count or a duration. Its Rules for Registration state that the allocation of points and the time frame in which the paper must be completed are determined in advance according to the requirement applicable to each paper. The exam is written online under virtual proctoring.

Must a construction health and safety officer be registered in South Africa?

Construction Regulation 8(5) allows a contractor to appoint a full-time or part-time construction health and safety officer after consulting the client and considering project size and risk. Regulation 8(6) prohibits appointing anyone the contractor is not reasonably satisfied is registered with a statutory body approved by the Chief Inspector.

How do I book the SACPCMP CHSO examination?

Applicants found eligible pay the examination fee and then book online on one of the sitting dates in the Council's annual registration calendar. Applicants must book within three months of their profile moving to exam stage, and all bookings close five working days before the exam date.

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