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Free NLN NEX Science Exam Flashcards

Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the National League for Nursing Nursing Entrance Exam (NEX) — Science Subject Test. See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.

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What distinguishes a prokaryotic cell from a eukaryotic cell?

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About These NLN NEX Science Flashcards

These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the National League for Nursing Nursing Entrance Exam (NEX) — Science Subject Test. Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.

Topics Covered

Biology18 cards
Human Anatomy10 cards
Human Physiology10 cards
Chemistry5 cards
Health7 cards

Complete Flashcard Reference

Review every term in this set. Open any term to reveal its definition.

What distinguishes a prokaryotic cell from a eukaryotic cell?

A prokaryote lacks a membrane-bound nucleus; its DNA occupies a nucleoid region. A eukaryote has a membrane-bound nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. Both have DNA, ribosomes, cytoplasm and a plasma membrane.

How do rough ER, smooth ER and the Golgi apparatus differ?

Rough ER has attached ribosomes and helps produce and process many secreted or membrane proteins. Smooth ER participates in lipid synthesis and other functions. The Golgi modifies, sorts and packages material for delivery.

Why does finding no chloroplasts in a root cell not show that it is an animal cell?

Many plant cells, including most root cells, do not photosynthesise and lack chloroplasts. A cellulose cell wall and other features can still identify a plant cell. Use several structural features rather than one missing organelle.

Match proteins, nucleic acids and polysaccharides to their building units.

Proteins contain amino acids; DNA and RNA contain nucleotides; polysaccharides contain monosaccharides. Many common lipids contain glycerol and fatty acids, but lipids are not all repeating-unit polymers.

A red blood cell enters a solution with a lower concentration of nonpenetrating solutes. What tends to happen?

Water enters by osmosis, so the cell swells and may lyse if the difference is large enough. Tonicity depends on solutes that do not readily cross the membrane, not simply the total count of every dissolved particle.

How do mitosis and meiosis differ in chromosome number and division count?

Mitosis usually produces two daughter nuclei with the parent’s chromosome number. Meiosis has two divisions after one DNA replication and reduces diploid cells to haploid products. Human oogenesis does not produce four equally functional eggs.

A cell-cycle sample contains 80 interphase, 10 prophase, 5 metaphase, 3 anaphase and 2 telophase cells. Which phase is longest if sampling is representative?

Interphase. It contains 80 of 100 observed cells, or 80%. In a stable, asynchronous population, a larger share suggests more time spent in that phase. The counts are a model estimate, not direct timing of one cell.

Which bases pair in double-stranded DNA, and which sugar does DNA contain?

Adenine pairs with thymine; guanine pairs with cytosine. DNA contains deoxyribose. RNA contains ribose and typically uses uracil instead of thymine. “DNA is always double-stranded” is too absolute across all biological entities.

What is the difference between transcription and translation?

Transcription makes an RNA copy from a DNA template. Translation uses a ribosome to read mRNA and assemble an amino-acid sequence. In eukaryotes, nuclear transcription and ribosomal translation occur in different cellular locations.

For Aa × Aa with complete dominance at one autosomal locus, what offspring ratios are expected?

Genotypes: 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa. Phenotypes: 3 dominant : 1 recessive. Each offspring has its own probabilities; four births need not contain exactly one AA, two Aa and one aa.

In a simplified X-linked recessive model, a carrier mother and unaffected father have a son. What is his probability of inheriting the recessive allele?

One-half. The son receives Y from his father and one of his mother’s X chromosomes. This is the probability conditional on being a son; the probability of an affected son among all children also depends on the probability of a male child.

What is the net ATP yield of glycolysis per glucose, and does glycolysis itself require oxygen?

Net yield is 2 ATP per glucose: 4 formed minus 2 invested. Glycolysis occurs in the cytosol and does not itself require oxygen. Oxygen is the final electron acceptor in aerobic electron transport, a different stage.

Where do the light-dependent reactions and Calvin cycle occur in a chloroplast?

Light-dependent reactions occur in thylakoid membranes and generate ATP and NADPH while releasing oxygen from water. The Calvin cycle occurs in the stroma and uses these products to build carbohydrate precursors from carbon dioxide.

After a drought, a finch population has more birds able to crack the remaining hard seeds. Does this prove birds intentionally changed their beaks?

No. If inherited beak differences affected survival and reproduction, natural selection could change trait frequencies across generations. The environment selects among variation; it does not make each bird deliberately acquire the needed inherited trait.

What are the three domains in a common modern classification framework?

Bacteria, Archaea and Eukarya. Domain is broader than kingdom. Classification reflects evolutionary relationships and can change with evidence; treating every organism as belonging to one fixed, universal five-kingdom scheme is misleading.

A simplified food-chain diagram assigns 10,000 kJ to producers and 800 kJ to primary consumers. What transfer efficiency does it show?

800 ÷ 10,000 × 100 = 8%. The familiar 10% transfer value is a rough teaching approximation, not a constant law. Energy is used in metabolism and transferred to the surroundings or other pathways.

A population table shows 20, 35, 48, 49 and 50 organisms over five equal intervals. What does the trend suggest?

Growth slows and approaches a plateau near 50 under the observed conditions. Resource limitation may be involved, but the table alone does not identify the limiting factor or prove that carrying capacity will stay at 50.

In a plant experiment testing light exposure, why randomly assign similar plants and keep water comparable?

Random assignment helps distribute other differences between groups; comparable water reduces a competing explanation. Measure an outcome such as growth, include replication and change the intended exposure. A result supports an inference within the design’s limits.

How do sagittal, frontal and transverse planes divide the body?

Sagittal: left and right portions; midsagittal: equal left and right halves. Frontal: anterior and posterior portions. Transverse: superior and inferior portions. These descriptions use anatomical position, not the viewer’s position.

A flow diagram reads vena cava → right atrium → tricuspid valve → X → pulmonary valve. Which chamber is X?

Right ventricle. Blood then passes through the pulmonary trunk and pulmonary arteries toward the lungs. The diagram describes the adult pulmonary route; oxygen-poor blood does not go directly from the right atrium to the left ventricle.

Trace inhaled air from the trachea to the gas-exchange surface.

Trachea → bronchi → smaller bronchi → bronchioles → respiratory passages and alveoli. Most gas exchange occurs across thin alveolar–capillary surfaces. The epiglottis participates in coordinated swallowing; it is not the only airway-protection mechanism.

Which structures belong to the central rather than peripheral nervous system?

The brain and spinal cord form the central nervous system. Nerves and ganglia outside them belong to the peripheral nervous system. “Sensory” and “motor” describe functional pathways, not the same division as central versus peripheral.

A labelled structure lies in the anterior neck, below the larynx, with two lobes around the trachea. Which endocrine gland fits?

The thyroid gland. The parathyroid glands usually lie on its posterior surface and have different hormone functions. Location plus structural description distinguishes these glands; the thyroid is not inside the brain or on top of a kidney.

How do tendons and skeletal ligaments differ?

Tendons attach muscle to bone; skeletal ligaments generally connect bone to bone across joints. The standard adult skeleton is often counted as 206 bones, but anatomical variation exists. “Ligament” also names some structures outside joints.

A muscle sample has striations, branching cells and intercalated discs. Which muscle type is most consistent?

Cardiac muscle. Skeletal muscle is striated but usually has long, unbranched fibres; smooth muscle lacks visible striations. Cardiac muscle works involuntarily. These are typical tissue features rather than a diagnosis from one isolated sign.

A digestive-flow diagram reads stomach → duodenum → jejunum → X → cecum. Which small-intestine segment is X?

Ileum. It follows the jejunum and joins the cecum at the ileocecal junction. The liver, gallbladder and pancreas are accessory digestive organs, not successive sections through which food normally passes.

A urinary diagram labels A as the tube from kidney to bladder and B as the tube from bladder outward. Identify A and B.

A is a ureter; B is the urethra. The bladder stores urine, while the kidneys produce it. Ureters and urethra are different structures despite similar names; urine does not travel from the bladder back through a kidney in the normal route.

Sperm and an ovulated secondary oocyte meet in the usual human fertilisation site. Which structure is this?

The uterine tube, most often its ampulla. The resulting early embryo normally travels toward the uterus and implants in the endometrium. The uterine cavity and vagina are not the usual sites of fertilisation.

How do negative and positive physiological feedback differ?

Negative feedback opposes the initial deviation from a regulated range. Positive feedback amplifies a change, as in the oxytocin-driven part of labour, until a terminating event. “Negative” does not mean harmful and “positive” does not mean beneficial.

A table shows heart rate 70 beats/min and stroke volume 70 mL/beat at rest, then 120 and 100 during activity. How does cardiac output change?

Cardiac output = heart rate × stroke volume. It changes from 4,900 mL/min (4.9 L/min) to 12,000 mL/min (12 L/min). These are provided examples, not universal values or diagnostic thresholds.

A breathing trace shows thoracic volume increasing and alveolar pressure briefly below atmospheric pressure. Which direction does air flow?

Into the lungs, down the pressure gradient. During quiet inspiration, diaphragm contraction helps increase thoracic volume. Expiration at rest is largely passive recoil; forced breathing recruits additional muscles.

Which ion movements typically depolarise and repolarise a neuronal action potential?

Opening voltage-gated sodium channels commonly allows Na+ influx during rapid depolarisation. Increased K+ efflux contributes to repolarisation. Resting and threshold voltages vary by cell; −70 mV and −55 mV are teaching examples, not universal constants.

Where is ADH made, and where is it stored and released?

ADH is made by hypothalamic neurons, then transported to and released from the posterior pituitary. It increases water permeability in parts of the renal collecting system when appropriate receptors and channels respond. The posterior pituitary does not synthesise it.

After a carbohydrate-containing meal raises blood glucose, how does insulin help restore balance?

Pancreatic beta cells release insulin, which promotes glucose uptake in responsive tissues and storage, including glycogen formation. Between meals, glucagon supports hepatic glucose output. This explains physiology, not a rule for selecting or dosing a medicine.

Why can glucose appear in urine when its filtered amount exceeds the tubules’ transport capacity?

Reabsorption is limited by available transport mechanisms. Above capacity, some filtered glucose remains in the tubule and is excreted. Glucose in urine has several possible explanations; this principle does not diagnose a person or establish a universal blood-glucose threshold.

In a model, fat breakdown is low with lipase alone and higher with lipase plus bile. What does this support?

Bile emulsification increases accessible surface area for lipase, helping fat hydrolysis. Bile itself is not the digestive enzyme. The comparison supports this mechanism under the model’s conditions; it does not establish the cause of a patient’s symptoms.

In skeletal muscle contraction, what do calcium and ATP do at the thin filament and cross-bridge?

Calcium binds troponin, helping move tropomyosin away from actin binding sites. ATP binding lets myosin detach; ATP hydrolysis helps reset it. Filaments slide past one another rather than each filament becoming shorter.

A second exposure to the same vaccine antigen produces a faster, stronger response in a model. Which immune feature explains it?

Adaptive immune memory. Memory B and T cells can respond more effectively on re-exposure. Protection varies by antigen and time; vaccination does not guarantee that infection or transmission can never occur.

How do atomic number, mass number, isotopes and ions differ?

Atomic number counts protons; mass number counts protons plus neutrons in one isotope. Isotopes of an element have different neutron counts. Ions have a net charge from unequal proton and electron counts; gaining electrons does not change the element.

How does a polar covalent bond differ from an ionic bond?

A polar covalent bond shares electrons unequally. An ionic bond is electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions. Hydrogen bonds are weaker attractions involving suitable partially positive hydrogen and an electronegative partner; they can occur between or within molecules.

At fixed temperature and gas amount, an ideal-gas table gives absolute (P, V) pairs (100 kPa, 2.0 L), (200, 1.0) and (400, 0.50). Which relationship fits?

Pressure × volume stays at 200 kPa·L, matching Boyle’s law for an ideal-gas approximation at constant temperature and amount. These pressures are absolute, not gauge values. Changing temperature or gas amount need not preserve this relationship.

Approximately how does hydrogen-ion concentration compare in dilute solutions at pH 4 and pH 6?

The pH 4 solution has about 100 times the hydrogen-ion concentration: 10^(6 − 4) = 100. Strictly, pH uses hydrogen-ion activity. A lower pH indicates greater acidity; it does not alone identify the acid or its total amount.

What does a catalyst change, and what does it leave unchanged at equilibrium?

A catalyst provides a pathway with lower activation energy and speeds approach to equilibrium. It does not change the equilibrium constant or create a different equilibrium composition at the same temperature. Most enzymes are proteins, but catalytic RNA also exists.

Classify vaccination before disease, screening for early disease and rehabilitation after a stroke by prevention level.

Primary prevention aims to prevent onset; secondary prevention detects or treats disease early; tertiary prevention limits effects or disability from established disease. Screening is not itself proof of disease, and rehabilitation is not primary prevention.

How do active and passive immunity differ?

Active immunity develops through the recipient’s own immune response, such as after vaccination. Passive immunity supplies preformed antibodies, such as maternal IgG. Passive protection is temporary and does not itself create the recipient’s immune memory.

How do you estimate food energy from 10 g carbohydrate, 5 g protein and 2 g fat?

Apply about 4 kcal/g for carbohydrate and protein and 9 kcal/g for fat: 10 × 4 + 5 × 4 + 2 × 9 = 78 kcal. These general factors are approximate; a label’s total can differ because of rounding, fibre and other components.

Raw chicken juice touches a ready-to-eat salad. Is rinsing the salad a reliable way to undo the contamination?

No. Prevent cross-contamination by separating raw poultry from ready-to-eat foods and cleaning hands, utensils and surfaces. Food can contain harmful microbes without visible spoilage. Do not use appearance, smell or taste as proof of safety.

Why does health include more than the absence of visible physical illness?

Physical, mental, emotional, social and spiritual dimensions can all affect well-being. These dimensions interact, and people express spiritual well-being in different ways. Respect individual beliefs; one dimension or appearance cannot determine someone’s overall health.

What is a substance use disorder, and why is moral blame an inaccurate explanation?

It is a health condition involving problematic substance use and impaired control despite harmful consequences. Biological, psychological and social factors can contribute. Compassionate assessment and evidence-based support are appropriate; a stereotype does not diagnose or explain an individual.

A table shows screening attendance of 80% near a clinic and 45% where transport is limited. Can it prove that the second group cares less about health?

No. Access barriers are a plausible explanation, and the association alone does not establish causation. Investigate transport, cost, scheduling and other factors. An avoidable, unfair access difference can represent a health inequity, not a personal failing.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are in NEX Science, and how much time is allowed?

The January 2026 NLN Technical Brief specifies 60 presented Science questions: 55 scored and 5 unscored pilot items, with 60 minutes. Items are multiple-choice with four options. NEX includes Verbal, Mathematics and Science in one live-proctored session; the three timed sections total 180 minutes, excluding any additional appointment activities.

What are the current content and cognitive blueprints?

Of 55 scored Science items: Biology 20, Human Anatomy 11, Human Physiology 11, Chemistry 5 and Health 8, published as rounded 36%, 20%, 20%, 9% and 15%. January 2026 Table 4 allocates 25 knowledge, 18 application and 12 interpretation items. Logic/reasoning is derived from application and interpretation, not a sixth exclusive content domain.

How do these 50 cards reflect a 55-item blueprint?

Nearest whole-card content targets are 18 Biology, 10 Anatomy, 10 Physiology, 5 Chemistry and 7 Health cards. Across those areas, the deck uses 23 knowledge, 16 application and 11 interpretation prompts, including provided data and labelled-flow descriptions. These are editorial adaptations for recall, not official items or an exhaustive mock exam.

Is physics tested, and when did NEX begin?

The NEX Science blueprint has no separate physics domain, unlike the older PAX science blueprint. NLN’s current brief identifies 11 February 2024 as the NEX release date. November 2025 marks the updated dual-norm reporting, not the exam’s original launch.

What score is needed, and what do the national benchmarks mean?

NLN sets no universal passing cutoff; the nursing program decides. Table 6 of the January 2026 brief lists Science benchmarks of 69.1% for RN and 56.4% for LPN/VN applicants to meet the national median comparison. These are percent-correct benchmarks under the 2024 norms, not admission guarantees or exactly interchangeable percentile values. Composite scores sum the three subject percentiles separately within each norm group.

What are the guessing and testing-materials rules?

There is no guessing penalty; unanswered items count as incorrect. The materials document linked by NLN allows a basic four-function calculator and one erasable whiteboard no larger than 8.5 × 11 inches, subject to proctor checks. It does not by itself establish that a calculator is built into every testing platform. Follow the program’s and proctor’s current instructions.

What are the retake, score-storage, registration and fee rules?

NLN’s student FAQ requires 30 days between tests unless a school has communicated a different preferred frequency to Assessment Services. NLN does not impose a national attempt cap, but the institution may limit attempts. NLN keeps scores for three years; a school may require a different recency window. Confirm registration, prerequisites, accepted scores and the full appointment fee with that program; no verified national fee is quoted here.

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