Free CV-BC Exam Flashcards
Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the ANCC Cardiac-Vascular Nursing Board Certification (CV-BC). See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.
When during the cardiac cycle do the coronary arteries receive most of their blood flow?
During diastole, when the aortic valve closes and the myocardium relaxes. Sustained tachycardia shortens diastole, so it cuts coronary filling time at the same moment oxygen demand is rising.
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About These CV-BC Flashcards
These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the ANCC Cardiac-Vascular Nursing Board Certification (CV-BC). Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.
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When during the cardiac cycle do the coronary arteries receive most of their blood flow?
During diastole, when the aortic valve closes and the myocardium relaxes. Sustained tachycardia shortens diastole, so it cuts coronary filling time at the same moment oxygen demand is rising.
How do you tell an S3 from an S4 at the bedside?
S3 is an early-diastolic sound of rapid filling into a volume-overloaded, dilated ventricle, a classic sign of decompensated heart failure. S4 is a late-diastolic sound made by the atrial kick striking a stiff ventricle (hypertension, ischemia, hypertrophy), so it disappears in atrial fibrillation because organized atrial contraction is lost.
Which assessment findings point to right-sided rather than left-sided heart failure?
Right-sided failure backs blood into the systemic veins: jugular venous distension, positive hepatojugular reflux, hepatomegaly, ascites, and dependent edema. Left-sided failure backs blood into the lungs: crackles, exertional dyspnea, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
How is the ankle-brachial index interpreted?
Divide the higher ankle systolic pressure by the higher brachial systolic pressure. A resting ABI of 0.90 or less is diagnostic of peripheral artery disease, 0.91-0.99 is borderline, 1.00-1.40 is normal, and above 1.40 means noncompressible, calcified vessels that require toe pressures instead.
What does the NIH Stroke Scale measure?
It is a standardized 11-item neurologic exam scored from 0 to 42, with higher totals meaning more severe deficit. Cardiac-vascular nurses use it to quantify and re-check stroke severity in patients at embolic risk, such as those in atrial fibrillation or after cardiac surgery.
What ST-segment elevation meets the criteria for a STEMI?
New ST elevation at the J point in two anatomically contiguous leads: 1 mm or more in most leads. V2-V3 need more - 2 mm in men 40 and older, 2.5 mm in men under 40, and 1.5 mm in women.
Which wall is infarcting when ST elevation appears in leads II, III, and aVF?
The inferior wall, usually supplied by the right coronary artery. Obtain right-sided leads (especially V4R), because an accompanying right ventricular infarction makes the patient preload dependent, and nitrates or aggressive diuresis can then cause abrupt hypotension.
What ECG features identify atrial fibrillation?
An irregularly irregular ventricular response with no discrete P waves and a chaotic fibrillatory baseline. Loss of the atrial kick can cut cardiac output by as much as roughly 20% to 30%, and stasis in the left atrial appendage creates embolic stroke risk.
What does a high-sensitivity cardiac troponin result actually tell you?
It identifies myocardial injury, not automatically infarction; an MI diagnosis also needs ischemic symptoms or ECG or imaging evidence plus a rise and/or fall on serial draws. High-sensitivity assays allow 0/1-hour or 0/2-hour serial protocols, so a single early value should never rule out ACS by itself.
How should BNP and NT-proBNP results be interpreted in a dyspneic patient?
Both rise with ventricular wall stress, so low values argue strongly against acute decompensated heart failure as the cause of dyspnea. Interpret in context: obesity falsely lowers levels while age, atrial fibrillation, and renal impairment raise them, and sacubitril/valsartan raises BNP while leaving NT-proBNP usable for trending.
Which cluster of findings supports the nursing diagnosis Decreased Cardiac Output?
Altered rate or rhythm, weak or absent peripheral pulses, cool and clammy skin, narrowed pulse pressure, urine output under about 0.5 mL/kg/hr, and new restlessness or confusion. The diagnosis describes the patient's response to impaired forward flow, which is what the nurse independently monitors and treats.
What are the guideline time targets for primary PCI in STEMI?
Device activation within 90 minutes of first medical contact when the patient presents to a PCI-capable hospital, and within 120 minutes when transfer from a non-PCI facility is required. These are quality measures reported by STEMI-receiving centers.
When is fibrinolytic therapy used instead of primary PCI in STEMI?
When primary PCI cannot be delivered within 120 minutes of first medical contact and the patient is within 12 hours of symptom onset. The door-to-needle target is 30 minutes; screen first for active bleeding, prior intracranial hemorrhage, recent ischemic stroke, or suspected aortic dissection.
What are the four pillars of guideline-directed medical therapy for HFrEF?
An ARNI (or an ACE inhibitor/ARB when an ARNI is not feasible), an evidence-based beta-blocker, a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist, and an SGLT2 inhibitor. Only bisoprolol, carvedilol, and metoprolol succinate have mortality evidence in HFrEF, so beta-blockers are not interchangeable here.
What discharge coordination steps most reduce heart failure readmission?
Complete medication reconciliation with a written, plain-language medication list, and arrange a follow-up visit generally within 7 days of discharge. Add weight-monitoring instructions and a symptom action plan before the patient leaves the unit.
What washout period is required when switching a patient from an ACE inhibitor to sacubitril/valsartan?
Hold the ACE inhibitor for 36 hours before the first ARNI dose. Overlapping the two drugs stacks bradykinin effects and sharply raises angioedema risk; no washout is needed when switching from an ARB.
Which medication class contraindicates nitrate administration?
Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors: withhold nitrates for 24 hours after sildenafil or vardenafil and 48 hours after tadalafil, because the combination causes profound, refractory hypotension. Ask every chest-pain patient about these drugs before giving nitroglycerin.
What defines high-intensity statin therapy after an acute coronary syndrome?
Atorvastatin 40-80 mg or rosuvastatin 20-40 mg daily, the doses expected to lower LDL cholesterol by 50% or more. High-intensity therapy is started during the hospitalization regardless of the admission LDL value.
How long is dual antiplatelet therapy continued after PCI for an acute coronary syndrome?
Aspirin plus a P2Y12 inhibitor for at least 12 months is the default when bleeding risk is not high; the 2025 ACC/AHA ACS guideline also allows a switch to ticagrelor monotherapy after at least 1 month of DAPT to reduce bleeding. Teach the patient never to stop the P2Y12 agent on their own, since unplanned early discontinuation drives stent thrombosis.
What INR ranges are targeted for warfarin therapy?
2.0-3.0 for atrial fibrillation, venous thromboembolism, and bioprosthetic valves; 2.5-3.5 for a mechanical mitral valve. Confirm the indication before judging whether a reported INR is therapeutic.
How does nursing management of a DOAC differ from warfarin?
DOACs need no routine INR monitoring, but dosing depends on renal function, age, and weight, so creatinine clearance must be rechecked periodically. Their short half-life means a missed dose leaves the patient unprotected within a day; reversal uses idarucizumab for dabigatran and andexanet alfa for factor Xa inhibitors.
What precautions apply when infusing IV amiodarone?
Use an in-line filter and prefer central access for concentrations above 2 mg/mL, since the drug is a peripheral vein irritant. Monitor continuously for hypotension and bradycardia during the load and slow the rate rather than stopping abruptly when blood pressure falls.
When is synchronized cardioversion used instead of defibrillation?
Synchronized cardioversion is for unstable tachyarrhythmias that still have a pulse, such as atrial fibrillation with rapid response, SVT, or monomorphic VT; the device times the shock to the R wave to avoid the vulnerable T-wave period. Unsynchronized defibrillation is for ventricular fibrillation, pulseless VT, and polymorphic VT.
What is the current temperature strategy for a comatose survivor of cardiac arrest?
Select and hold a constant target between 32 and 37.5 degrees Celsius for adults who do not follow commands after ROSC; the 2025 AHA guidelines call it reasonable to continue temperature control for at least 36 hours. Treat shivering, because it raises metabolic demand and defeats the temperature target.
How is intra-aortic balloon pump counterpulsation timed?
The balloon inflates at the dicrotic notch as diastole begins, raising aortic root pressure and coronary perfusion, and deflates just before systole, dropping afterload so the left ventricle ejects against less resistance. Mistimed inflation or deflation increases, rather than decreases, ventricular workload.
How do you assess perfusion in a patient with a continuous-flow LVAD?
Many of these patients have no palpable pulse, so pulse oximetry and automated cuffs are unreliable; obtain a mean arterial pressure using a Doppler over the brachial artery with a manual cuff. Also inspect and secure the driveline exit site at every shift, since driveline infection is a major complication.
How does post-procedure care differ between radial and femoral cardiac catheterization access?
Radial access uses a compression band with patent hemostasis; check hand color, warmth, sensation, and capillary refill, and the patient can sit up and walk sooner. Femoral access needs supine bed rest with the leg straight and head of bed low, plus checks for hematoma, distal pulses, and back or flank pain that suggests retroperitoneal bleeding.
What is the nurse's role in informed consent for a cardiac procedure?
The proceduralist explains the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives; the nurse witnesses the signature and verifies that consent is voluntary and that the patient can describe what was explained. If the patient cannot, stop the process and notify the provider rather than re-explaining the procedure yourself.
What VTE prevention measures belong in a cardiac-vascular plan of care?
Apply a risk assessment on admission, mobilize early, and use pharmacologic prophylaxis such as low-molecular-weight or unfractionated heparin unless bleeding risk forbids it. When anticoagulants are contraindicated, use intermittent pneumatic compression and document why mechanical prophylaxis was chosen.
What findings suggest heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?
A platelet drop of 50% or more from baseline, typically 5-10 days after heparin exposure, often with new thrombosis rather than bleeding. Stop every heparin source including flushes and coated catheters, start a non-heparin anticoagulant such as argatroban or bivalirudin, and delay warfarin until platelets recover.
What happens when amiodarone is added to digoxin or warfarin?
Amiodarone raises the serum concentration of both. The digoxin dose is usually cut by about half with level and rhythm monitoring, and the warfarin dose is reduced with more frequent INR checks because the INR climbs over the following days to weeks.
A warfarin patient's INR drops after they start a daily kale smoothie. What is the correct diet teaching?
A sudden rise in vitamin K intake antagonizes warfarin and lowers the INR. Teach consistency rather than avoidance: keep weekly intake of leafy greens steady, and report any major diet change, new antibiotic, herbal product, or change in alcohol use so the INR can be rechecked.
What monitoring is required when an MRA is added to an ACE inhibitor, ARB, or ARNI?
Start only when eGFR is above 30 mL/min/1.73 m2 and potassium is below 5.0 mEq/L, then recheck potassium and creatinine within the first week after starting or raising the dose and again within the first month. Hyperkalemia is the dose-limiting adverse event: stop the MRA if potassium cannot be kept under 5.5 mEq/L, and avoid potassium-chloride salt substitutes.
How fast should blood pressure be lowered in a hypertensive emergency?
Without a compelling condition, lower systolic pressure by no more than 25% in the first hour, then to under 160/100 mm Hg over the next 2-6 hours, using a titratable IV agent with continuous monitoring. Aortic dissection is the exception: systolic pressure goes below 120 mm Hg within the first hour along with heart-rate control.
What suggests a femoral pseudoaneurysm after catheterization?
A pulsatile, tender groin mass with a new systolic bruit or thrill at the access site, sometimes with expanding ecchymosis. Duplex ultrasound confirms it, and treatment is usually ultrasound-guided compression or thrombin injection rather than repeat manual pressure alone.
What presentation should make you suspect acute pulmonary embolism?
Abrupt dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, and hypoxemia that does not fit the patient's known cardiac picture, often after immobility or recent surgery. Anticoagulation begins while the workup proceeds when bleeding risk allows; sustained hypotension marks high-risk PE and triggers consideration of thrombolysis or embolectomy.
What are the treatment time windows for acute ischemic stroke?
IV thrombolysis is given within 4.5 hours of last known well in eligible patients, with a door-to-needle target of 60 minutes or less. Mechanical thrombectomy extends to 24 hours from last known well in selected large-vessel occlusions identified by advanced imaging.
How is cardiogenic shock recognized?
Persistent hypotension, typically systolic pressure below 90 mm Hg, with hypoperfusion signs such as cool mottled extremities, oliguria, rising lactate, and altered mental status despite adequate filling. Norepinephrine is the preferred first-line vasopressor while the cause is treated and mechanical support is considered.
What weight gain should a heart failure patient report from home?
A gain of 2-3 pounds overnight or about 5 pounds in a week, because fluid retention shows on the scale days before dyspnea or edema appear. The number is only trustworthy under matched conditions: same scale, each morning after voiding, before breakfast, in similar clothing.
Which common mistakes make a home blood pressure reading falsely high?
Caffeine, exercise, or smoking within 30 minutes, a full bladder, talking, crossed legs, an unsupported back or arm, and a cuff placed over clothing all push the reading up. Teach a 5-minute seated rest with the bare upper arm at heart level, then two readings a minute apart, morning and evening, averaged and logged.
What are the adult blood pressure categories?
Normal is under 120/80; elevated is 120-129 systolic with diastolic under 80; stage 1 is 130-139 systolic or 80-89 diastolic; stage 2 is 140 or higher systolic or 90 or higher diastolic. The 2025 AHA/ACC guideline keeps the general treatment goal below 130/80 mm Hg.
What daily sodium limit is taught to a patient with hypertension?
Under 2,300 mg per day, with an optimal goal near 1,500 mg (AHA/ACC). The 2022 heart failure guideline advises avoiding excessive sodium without naming one limit, so heart failure patients follow the target set by their HF team; teach label reading either way, since most sodium is added before food reaches the table.
What physical activity dose is recommended for cardiovascular risk reduction?
At least 150 minutes per week of moderate-intensity aerobic activity, or 75 minutes of vigorous activity, plus muscle-strengthening work on two or more days. Any increase above baseline helps, so patients who cannot reach the target should still be encouraged to move more.
What is added when a very high-risk ASCVD patient's LDL stays at or above 70 mg/dL on a maximally tolerated statin?
Ezetimibe first, then a PCSK9 inhibitor if LDL remains at or above 70 mg/dL. Before escalating, confirm the statin is actually taken every day and ask about muscle symptoms, because missed doses and unreported intolerance are the most common reasons LDL stays high.
What is the structure of an effective smoking-cessation intervention?
Use the 5 A's - Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange - at every contact and document it. Combining behavioral counseling with pharmacotherapy such as varenicline, nicotine replacement, or bupropion works better than either approach alone.
When should a patient using sublingual nitroglycerin at home call 911?
If chest discomfort is unimproved or worse 5 minutes after the first dose, call 911 rather than waiting through three doses; a second and third tablet may follow at 5-minute intervals while help is on the way. Sit down before dosing, let the tablet dissolve under the tongue, and keep tablets in the original light-protective bottle.
What does a phase II cardiac rehabilitation referral give the patient?
Medically supervised, monitored exercise with risk-factor education and psychosocial support, typically up to 36 sessions. Medicare covers it after events such as myocardial infarction, PCI, CABG, valve surgery, transplant, stable angina, and chronic HFrEF with an ejection fraction of 35% or less, so referral should be placed before discharge.
What do anticoagulation clinics and point-of-care INR testing add to warfarin care?
The clinic adjusts dosing from each INR, tracks time in therapeutic range, and reviews diet and drug interactions at every contact. Trained, stable patients can use a fingerstick point-of-care meter at home, which shortens the interval between result and dose change.
What is the teach-back method?
Ask the patient to explain the instruction in their own words, then reteach whatever is missing. It verifies comprehension, whereas asking 'Do you understand?' invites a yes from patients with limited health literacy who do not want to appear uninformed.
Which cardiovascular risk factors are nonmodifiable?
Age, sex assigned at birth, race or ethnicity, and family history cannot be changed; smoking, blood pressure, lipids, diabetes, weight, diet, and inactivity can. Family history is premature when a first-degree male relative had coronary disease before age 55 or a first-degree female relative before age 65.
Frequently Asked Questions
How many questions are on the ANCC CV-BC exam and how much time do you get?
The Cardiac-Vascular Nursing test content outline lists 150 questions, of which 125 are scored and 25 are unscored pretest items, with a 3-hour appointment. Pretest items cannot be distinguished from scored items, so every question should be answered.
What is the passing score for the CV-BC exam?
ANCC reports results as pass or fail on a scaled score with a maximum of 500, and a scaled score of 350 or higher passes. The exam is criterion-referenced with the cut score set by subject-matter experts using the Modified Angoff method, so you are not competing against other candidates.
What is the CV-BC exam pass rate?
ANCC's 2025 Certification Data report lists a 67% pass rate for first-time Cardiac-Vascular Nursing candidates: 1,120 tested and 754 passed, with 6,573 nurses holding the credential at the end of 2025. The rate varies from year to year, so treat it as a benchmark rather than a guarantee.
What are the CV-BC content domains and their weights?
The outline effective December 5, 2024 divides the 125 scored questions into Assessment and Diagnosis (27 questions, 22%), Planning and Implementation (44 questions, 35%), Evaluation and Modification (23 questions, 18%), and Patient and Community Education (31 questions, 25%).
Who is eligible to sit for the ANCC CV-BC exam?
You need a current, active RN license, the equivalent of 2 years of full-time practice as a registered nurse, 2,000 hours of clinical practice in cardiac-vascular nursing within the last 3 years, and 30 hours of continuing education in cardiac-vascular nursing within the last 3 years.
What happens if you fail the CV-BC exam?
ANCC allows a retest after 60 calendar days from the date you last tested, and you may not test more than three times in any 12-month period. Each retest requires a new application, eligibility under the rules in effect at that time, the retest fee, and retaking the entire exam.
How long is the CV-BC credential valid and how is it renewed?
ANCC certification is granted for 5 years. Renewal requires a current active RN license, 75 continuing education contact hours earned during the 5-year certification period, completion of at least one of the eight professional development categories in full, and the renewal fee.
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