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Sample SHGM IR(A) Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to review concepts for the SHGM IR(A) exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 28+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1An IFR pilot is assigned 6,000 ft and a new heading. No descent clearance is issued. What happens to the assigned altitude?
A.It becomes advisory
B.It remains in force
C.It changes to the chart's lowest sector altitude
D.It is cancelled when the turn begins
Explanation: A lateral instruction does not itself cancel an assigned altitude. The pilot must obtain an appropriate clearance before changing that altitude.
2What is the essential operational distinction between decision altitude and minimum descent altitude?
A.Both always authorize level flight until the runway threshold
B.DA requires the missed-approach decision at that altitude; MDA is a lower limit that must not be passed without the required conditions
C.MDA is referenced only to radio altitude
D.DA is always lower than every MDA
Explanation: DA marks the decision point on the applicable approach profile. MDA establishes a descent floor; it does not by itself authorize descent below it or continued flight beyond the missed-approach point.
3Does passing IR(A) theoretical knowledge alone authorize a pilot to exercise instrument-rating privileges?
A.Yes, for flights without passengers
B.Yes, whenever ATC accepts the flight plan
C.No, the applicable training, skill test and rating requirements remain
D.Yes, if a second radio is carried
Explanation: SHT-FCL FCL.615 and FCL.620 distinguish training and skill testing from theoretical knowledge. Theory success is one requirement rather than an issued rating.
4Why must an instrument pilot use the current applicable approach procedure rather than a remembered version?
A.Memory automatically incorporates NOTAM changes
B.Obstacle, navigation or procedure changes may alter the safe and authorized operation
C.Only the chart's colour can change
D.An ATC clearance cancels every published restriction
Explanation: Procedure data and notified changes can affect tracks, minima and equipment requirements. Familiarity does not establish that remembered information remains current.
5The static source becomes blocked during level flight. What happens to a conventional barometric altimeter as the aircraft subsequently climbs?
A.It indicates the climb normally
B.It remains near the altitude at blockage
C.It immediately reads zero
D.It becomes a radio altimeter
Explanation: The blocked line traps static pressure. The altimeter cannot sense the falling ambient pressure of the climb and remains near its previous indication.
6An attitude display disagrees with independently powered standby instruments. What is the best diagnostic approach?
A.Trust the largest display automatically
B.Compare independent indications, power sources and flight response while maintaining control
C.Average the displayed bank angles
D.Disable all instruments to avoid confusion
Explanation: Instrument cross-checks should consider independence and common failure sources. A plausible-looking primary display can still be erroneous.
7Why should an instrument scan include performance indications as well as attitude indications?
A.Attitude alone always guarantees desired flight path
B.Power, configuration and conditions affect the performance resulting from an attitude
C.Performance instruments eliminate the need for attitude control
D.Airspeed and altitude are identical measurements
Explanation: A given attitude does not produce one fixed airspeed or vertical path under all conditions. Performance indications verify whether control inputs achieve the intended result.
8At 120 kt groundspeed, a standard-rate turn is assumed to be 3° per second. How long does a 180° turn take?
A.30 seconds
B.60 seconds
C.90 seconds
D.120 seconds
Explanation: Time equals angle divided by turn rate: 180 / 3 = 60 seconds. Groundspeed affects turn radius but not the time at the stated angular rate.
9An exercise uses a descent gradient of 300 ft/NM from 18,000 ft to 3,000 ft. Ignoring deceleration and other allowances, what descent distance is required?
A.45 NM
B.50 NM
C.54 NM
D.60 NM
Explanation: Height loss is 18,000 − 3,000 = 15,000 ft. At 300 ft/NM, distance is 15,000 / 300 = 50 NM; do not mix this gradient with a different rule of thumb.
10An alternate-planning exercise requires ceiling ≥800 ft and visibility ≥3,000 m throughout 13:00–15:00, including TEMPO groups. Forecast prevailing conditions are 1,000 ft/5,000 m, with TEMPO 13:30–14:30 at 600 ft/4,000 m. Under these supplied exercise criteria only, is it suitable?
A.Yes, because only prevailing conditions count
B.Yes, because visibility exceeds 3,000 m throughout
C.No, because the applicable TEMPO ceiling is below 800 ft
D.No, because the TEMPO period lies entirely outside the planning window
Explanation: The TEMPO period overlaps the specified window and must be included under the exercise rule. Its 600 ft ceiling fails the 800 ft criterion even though visibility qualifies; these numbers are illustrative, not Turkish legal minima.
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