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Sample SHGM Flight Dispatcher Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to review concepts for the SHGM Flight Dispatcher exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 50+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1Before departure, a dispatcher finds that a newly closed runway invalidates the planned landing-performance calculation. What is the appropriate operational-control response?
A.Use ATC acceptance of the flight plan as confirmation of landing performance
B.Retain the earlier calculation until the next scheduled flight-plan update
C.Add holding fuel while retaining the now-invalid landing calculation
D.Resolve the runway, performance and fuel implications with the crew before release under the operator's procedures
Explanation: Flight preparation must use conditions applicable to the planned operation. The dispatcher supports the commander by resolving new safety information through the operator's approved control procedures; ATC flight-plan acceptance is not a performance approval.
2A dispatcher nearing the end of a demanding shift notices repeated omissions in fuel checks. Which response best manages the human-performance risk?
A.Continue alone because the errors have so far been corrected before release
B.Disclose the problem and arrange an appropriate cross-check or relief under the operator's procedures
C.Postpone reporting until an error affects an airborne flight
D.Use only a final total-fuel comparison instead of the required component checks
Explanation: Repeated omissions can signal degraded performance requiring intervention. Reporting the concern and obtaining support helps manage the risk without inventing a universal dispatcher duty-hour limit.
3An approved MEL states that a defect must be rectified within three consecutive calendar days, excluding discovery day. It is discovered on Monday. When does this interval expire?
A.At the end of Tuesday
B.At the end of Wednesday
C.At the end of Thursday
D.At the end of Friday
Explanation: Monday is excluded, so Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday are the three counted days. The interval therefore ends at the end of Thursday under the supplied MEL wording, rather than exactly 72 hours after discovery.
4What does an (O) symbol associated with an MEL item identify?
A.A required maintenance procedure
B.A rectification-interval extension
C.A required operational procedure
D.An optional equipment installation
Explanation: The (O) symbol identifies an operational procedure associated with operation under that MEL item. The procedure and all other conditions must be satisfied by the appropriately designated personnel.
5Which distinction between an MEL and a CDL is correct?
A.MEL addresses specified missing external parts; CDL addresses inoperative equipment
B.MEL is only a maintenance work schedule; CDL is only a cargo loading document
C.MEL deferrals require conditions, whereas CDL omissions never affect performance
D.MEL addresses inoperative equipment; CDL addresses specified missing external parts
Explanation: An MEL permits operation with specified inoperative equipment under stated conditions. A CDL addresses specified missing external parts and may impose performance penalties; neither is an unrestricted exemption from airworthiness requirements.
6During shift handover, one airborne flight is approaching a fuel decision point with deteriorating alternate weather. Which handover is most effective?
A.State that all flights were normal at departure and transfer the shift
B.Leave the decision point unmentioned because it is recorded in an old message
C.Identify the flight, current fuel/weather assessment, decision trigger and outstanding actions, then confirm understanding
D.Report only the aircraft registration without its operational status
Explanation: A useful handover transfers the active assessment and the next required decisions, not just identifiers or historical status. Confirming the receiving dispatcher's understanding reduces the risk of a missed time-critical action.
7Which information is most relevant when assessing an unfamiliar diversion route?
A.Terrain, safe altitudes, weather, available aerodromes, navigation capability and operational restrictions
B.Only the great-circle distance to the destination
C.Only whether the flight plan is syntactically accepted
D.Only the aircraft's structural maximum takeoff mass
Explanation: A route must be usable by the actual aircraft in the expected conditions, including possible diversion requirements. Distance and flight-plan acceptance are useful inputs but do not establish terrain clearance, weather suitability or aircraft capability.
8Flight watch identifies a new severe-weather hazard affecting an airborne flight. What is the dispatcher's immediate useful contribution?
A.Provide the crew with the new information and assess practicable routing or diversion options
B.Wait for a routine post-flight report before recording it
C.Assume the original departure briefing remains sufficient
D.Treat a valid ATC clearance as proof that the hazard is acceptable
Explanation: The dispatcher supports safe continuation by promptly communicating significant new information and assessing options. The commander and operational-control system then act using current conditions, rather than the original briefing alone.
9An aerodrome reports prevailing visibility of 2,000 m and runway visual range of 450 m for the landing runway. Why should a dispatcher retain both values when reviewing the arrival?
A.The higher value automatically replaces the lower value for every approach
B.They describe different visibility measures, and the applicable operation determines which value is relevant
C.The runway value is a cloud-base measurement that must be converted to feet
D.The lower value makes the prevailing-visibility observation invalid
Explanation: Prevailing visibility describes the aerodrome's general visibility conditions, while RVR concerns the view of runway markings or lights along a particular runway. They are not interchangeable; the applicable approach and operating rules determine their use.
10A hypothetical TAF contains TEMPO 2214/2218 3000 -TSRA BKN015CB. Which interpretation is correct?
A.Temporary periods of 3,000 m visibility in light thunderstorm rain with broken CB at 1,500 ft above aerodrome level
B.Permanent 3,000 ft ceiling from 14:00 until 18:00
C.A 30% probability of thunderstorms throughout the day
D.A report of actual conditions observed at 22:14 UTC
Explanation: The group forecasts temporary fluctuations between 14:00 and 18:00 UTC on day 22. The visibility, weather and cloud values must then be assessed using the applicable planning rules rather than a universal assumption that every TEMPO group has the same dispatch consequence.
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