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Key Facts: SSGMC Pharmacist Licensure Examination Exam
4 Core Rotations
Form 1C defines mandatory rotations in Hospital, Community, Supply Chain (CMS/RMS), and Regulatory Authority
SSGMC Pharmacist Internship Assessment Form 1C
Section 4
Describes pharmacy professional ethics, confidentiality and commercial conflicts of interest
SSGMC Guide to Ethics of Medical, Dental & Pharmacy Practice (May 2025)
Editorial 25% Allocation
Four equal 25% study sections map to the four documented practice competencies; no official sitting weights are published
OpenExamPrep Practice Bank Specification
Form 1C & GMC Act 2014
Licensure and permanent registration require accredited BPharm graduation, preliminary registration, and completed logbook
General Medical Council Act 2014 & Registration Procedures
Practice for the SSGMC Pharmacist Licensure assessment with 100 independent English MCQs covering clinical pharmacotherapy, community dispensing, supply chain analytics, and regulatory ethics. Official exam timetable, sitting fee, question count, and pass mark are not published.
Sample SSGMC Pharmacist Licensure Examination Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to review concepts for the SSGMC Pharmacist Licensure Examination exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1A clinical pharmacist reviews a written inpatient medication order. Which set of details best supports safe identification, prescription evaluation and dispensing?
A.Patient full name and hospital number, generic drug name, dose, route, frequency, prescriber signature, and date
B.Patient full name, commercial brand name only, room number, nurse initials, and tentative diagnosis
C.Drug generic name, quantity to supply, patient telephone contact, and pharmacy dispenser stamp alone
D.Prescriber name, clinic department, trade name of drug, and verbal authorization date alone
Explanation: Patient identifiers, an unambiguous medicine and dose, administration instructions, date and prescriber authorization support safe evaluation. The Council's prescribing guidance also addresses formulation, strength and treatment duration. These are safety requirements to check together, not a claim that this abbreviated list exhausts every applicable legal requirement.
2For a prescribed-dose calculation, an 18-kg child is prescribed ceftriaxone 75 mg/kg once daily. Reconstituted stock contains 100 mg/mL. What volume should be withdrawn to provide the prescribed dose before any further IV dilution and administration required by the product instructions?
A.13.5 mL
B.18.0 mL
C.7.5 mL
D.15.0 mL
Explanation: The prescribed dose is 18 × 75 = 1,350 mg. At 100 mg/mL, withdraw 1,350/100 = 13.5 mL. This is a stock-volume calculation; use the product's compatible diluent, final concentration and infusion instructions before administration.
3An adult patient with a height of 160 cm and a body weight of 64 kg is prescribed IV cyclophosphamide at a dose of 500 mg/m². Using the Mosteller formula for Body Surface Area (BSA in m² = √[(Height in cm × Weight in kg) / 3600]), calculate the total dose of cyclophosphamide to be prepared.
A.843 mg
B.500 mg
C.1,000 mg
D.685 mg
Explanation: Applying the Mosteller formula: BSA = √[(160 × 64) / 3600] = √[10,240 / 3600] = √2.8444 ≈ 1.6865 m². Multiplying BSA by the prescribed dose gives 1.6865 m² × 500 mg/m² = 843.27 mg, rounded to 843 mg.
4A patient requires 1,000 mL of 0.9% normal saline to be infused intravenously over 8 hours using a standard IV administration giving set calibrated to 20 drops/mL. What is the correct infusion rate in drops per minute (drops/min)?
A.42 drops/min
B.21 drops/min
C.60 drops/min
D.125 drops/min
Explanation: The total infusion time in minutes is 8 hours × 60 minutes = 480 minutes. The formula for drop rate is (Total Volume in mL × Drop Factor) ÷ Time in minutes = (1,000 mL × 20 drops/mL) ÷ 480 minutes = 20,000 ÷ 480 = 41.67 drops/min, which rounds to 42 drops/min.
5A 62-year-old patient weighing 70 kg receives IV gentamicin for urosepsis. The steady-state peak serum concentration drawn 30 minutes after an infusion is 9 µg/mL, and the trough concentration drawn immediately prior to the next scheduled dose is 2.8 µg/mL (target trough is < 1.0 µg/mL). What clinical intervention should the hospital pharmacist recommend?
A.Extend the dosing interval to allow adequate drug clearance and prevent nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
B.Increase the dose to achieve higher peak bactericidal activity
C.Shorten the dosing interval from every 24 hours to every 8 hours
D.Continue the current regimen unchanged as the trough reflects therapeutic saturation
Explanation: The trough exceeds the target explicitly supplied in the question, suggesting inadequate clearance between doses. Review renal function, sample timing and the dosing method before adjusting the next dose, often by extending the interval. Gentamicin targets depend on indication and regimen; a peak of 9 µg/mL is not universally adequate for every extended-interval protocol.
6A 68-year-old male patient (height 175 cm, body weight 72 kg, serum creatinine 2.4 mg/dL) requires treatment with IV vancomycin. Using the Cockcroft-Gault equation [CrCl = ((140 - Age) × Weight in kg) / (72 × Serum Creatinine)], what is his estimated creatinine clearance and the appropriate pharmacist action?
A.CrCl is approximately 30 mL/min; decrease the maintenance dose or extend the dosing interval with therapeutic drug monitoring
B.CrCl is approximately 65 mL/min; administer standard loading and maintenance doses every 8 hours
C.CrCl is approximately 15 mL/min; immediately discontinue vancomycin and contraindicate all glycopeptides
D.CrCl is approximately 85 mL/min; increase the maintenance infusion rate by 20%
Explanation: The supplied equation gives (72 × 72)/(72 × 2.4) = 30 mL/min. Reduced renal function requires individualized maintenance dosing and monitoring, not a claim that clearance is exactly halved or a fixed interval fits every patient. For serious MRSA infections, current consensus favours AUC-guided vancomycin monitoring when feasible rather than relying on a high trough target alone.
7A reconstituted injection is specified by its manufacturer to be a clear solution without visible particles. On inspection against light and dark backgrounds, which finding requires the product to be withheld and investigated?
A.Presence of haze, visible particulate matter, or persistent crystallization
B.A completely clear, colorless solution with no visible particles
C.A pale yellow tint that is explicitly stated as normal in the manufacturer monograph
D.A small sterile air bubble at the top of an inverted glass vial
Explanation: Unexpected haze, particles or crystals in a product intended to be a clear solution are reasons to withhold it and investigate. Check the product specification because some injections are intentionally suspensions or emulsions. Visual acceptability also does not establish sterility or potency.
8A ward nurse asks the clinical pharmacist whether ceftriaxone and Ringer's lactate solution can be co-infused through the same intravenous line. What is the pharmacist's correct advice based on physical compatibility?
A.They are incompatible due to the risk of calcium-ceftriaxone precipitate formation in the bloodstream or line
B.They are fully compatible because Ringer's lactate acts as an effective buffering agent for cephalosporins
C.They may be infused simultaneously if administered rapidly over less than 5 minutes
D.They are compatible only if protected from ambient ward lighting
Explanation: Ceftriaxone binds avidly with calcium ions present in Ringer's lactate (or Hartmann's solution) to form an insoluble calcium-ceftriaxone salt. This precipitate can cause fatal micro-emboli in the lungs and kidneys, especially in neonates and young infants, making co-infusion strictly contraindicated.
9For a dilution calculation only, assume a suitable formulation requires 500 mL of 0.2% (w/v) chlorhexidine gluconate from 5% (w/v) stock, with additive volumes. What stock and diluent volumes give the target concentration?
A.20 mL of 5% stock solution diluted with 480 mL of sterile water
B.50 mL of 5% stock solution diluted with 450 mL of sterile water
C.10 mL of 5% stock solution diluted with 490 mL of sterile water
D.25 mL of 5% stock solution diluted with 475 mL of sterile water
Explanation: Using C1V1 = C2V2 gives V1 = (0.2 × 500)/5 = 20 mL of stock. Under the additive-volume assumption, add 480 mL of the specified diluent. This arithmetic does not establish suitability for a particular clinical route, sterility, compatibility or an approved compounding procedure.
10An inpatient receiving first-line anti-tuberculosis therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol) develops anorexia, nausea, and scleral icterus. Serum AST and ALT are found to be 5 times the upper limit of normal (ULN) with elevated total bilirubin. What is the recommended clinical management?
A.Immediately withhold the hepatotoxic agents (rifampicin, isoniazid, and pyrazinamide) and investigate liver function recovery
B.Increase pyridoxine to 200 mg daily and maintain the full anti-TB regimen unchanged
C.Discontinue ethambutol only, as it is the primary cause of intrinsic drug-induced hepatocellular necrosis
D.Switch immediately to high-dose oral paracetamol for symptomatic management while continuing rifampicin
Explanation: Symptomatic liver injury with jaundice during TB treatment warrants urgent review and withholding potentially hepatotoxic drugs, including isoniazid, rifampicin and pyrazinamide. Investigate alternative causes and arrange specialist management of both liver injury and ongoing TB treatment. Reintroduction is individualized after recovery; it is not an automatic restart of the full original regimen.
About the SSGMC Pharmacist Licensure Examination Practice Questions
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