All Practice Exams
Free Practice Questions for SSGMC Medical Doctor Licensure Examination
Exam-style questions and explanations by OpenExamPrep.
✓ No registration✓ No credit card
100+ Questions
100% Free
Loading practice questions...
Same family resources
Explore More South Sudan SSGMC Healthcare Licensure
Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.
Exam Review
Key Facts: SSGMC Medical Doctor Licensure Examination Exam
Biannual
SSGMC conducts licensing examinations biannually in April and November for medical doctors completing internship
SSGMC Official Portal Chairperson Statement
Form 1B Logbook
Registration-linked internship assessment documents knowledge, clinical skills and professional conduct; a universal internship duration remains unverified
SSGMC Registration Regulations & Form 1B
5 Core Domains
Practice bank covers Internal Medicine, Surgery & Trauma, Paediatrics, Obstetrics & Gynaecology, and Public Health & Ethics
National Medical Education Curriculum 2021 & SSGMC Form 1B
May 2025 Code
Medical ethics questions reflect Section 2 of the updated SSGMC Guide to Ethics of Medical Practice
SSGMC The Guide to Ethics (May 2025)
Prepare for the SSGMC Medical Doctor Licensure Examination with 100 free independent clinical practice questions covering internal medicine, surgery, paediatrics, obstetrics, and medical ethics.
Sample SSGMC Medical Doctor Licensure Examination Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to review concepts for the SSGMC Medical Doctor Licensure Examination exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1A 28-year-old man is brought to the emergency department in Juba with high fever, impaired consciousness, jaundice, and dark urine. Thick blood film confirms Plasmodium falciparum parasitemia of 8%. Which of the following is the recommended first-line treatment according to national and WHO guidelines?
A.Intravenous artesunate 2.4 mg/kg at 0, 12, and 24 hours, then once daily
B.Intravenous quinine loading dose of 20 mg/kg infused over 4 hours in 5% dextrose
C.Oral artemether-lumefantrine 4 tablets twice daily for 3 days crushed via nasogastric tube
D.Intramuscular chloroquine 10 mg base/kg followed by oral primaquine
Explanation: WHO recommends parenteral artesunate for severe malaria; this adult receives 2.4 mg/kg at 0, 12 and 24 hours, then daily while parenteral treatment remains necessary. Continue parenteral treatment for at least 24 hours and until oral therapy is tolerated, then give a complete three-day ACT course. Glucose monitoring remains important because severe malaria itself can cause hypoglycemia; children below 20 kg require a different weight-based artesunate dose.
2A 34-year-old woman presents with four weeks of productive cough, fever, night sweats and weight loss. Which available sputum investigation follows WHO's recommendation to use a rapid molecular test for initial pulmonary tuberculosis diagnosis?
A.Ziehl-Neelsen sputum smear microscopy for acid-fast bacilli
B.GeneXpert MTB/RIF rapid molecular assay on expectorated sputum
C.Standard Mantoux tuberculin skin test with 5 tuberculin units
D.Posteroanterior chest radiography alone followed by empirical broad-spectrum amoxicillin
Explanation: The GeneXpert MTB/RIF (or Ultra) molecular assay is the recommended initial diagnostic test for individuals with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis. It provides rapid, simultaneous identification of Mycobacterium tuberculosis DNA and detects rifampicin resistance within two hours with higher sensitivity than sputum smear microscopy. Sputum smear microscopy remains useful for monitoring treatment response, but GeneXpert is superior for initial case detection.
3A 56-year-old hypertensive diabetic man presents with 2 hours of retrosternal crushing chest pain radiating to his left shoulder and jaw, accompanied by diaphoresis. Electrocardiogram reveals 3-mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF with reciprocal depression in I and aVL. The nearest primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) facility is 6 hours away, and assessment finds no contraindication to fibrinolysis. What is the most appropriate reperfusion strategy?
A.Start subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin and defer reperfusion until cardiac troponin returns
B.Transfer the patient immediately by road for primary PCI despite the 6-hour delay
C.Administer dual antiplatelet therapy and IV fibrinolysis within 30 minutes of arrival
D.Prescribe oral isosorbide mononitrate and arrange an elective outpatient treadmill exercise test
Explanation: For an early STEMI presentation when timely primary PCI is unavailable, assess fibrinolysis eligibility immediately, including bleeding and stroke contraindications. Give appropriate antiplatelet treatment and fibrinolysis promptly if eligible, then arrange transfer to a PCI-capable centre for rescue PCI or the planned invasive strategy. Fibrinolysis does not remove the need for subsequent transfer, and diagnostic troponin should not delay reperfusion.
4A 21-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes presents in a state of confusion with deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul breathing) and marked dehydration. Capillary blood glucose is 29 mmol/L, urine dipstick shows ketones 4+, and arterial blood gas demonstrates pH 7.12, serum bicarbonate 9 mmol/L, and potassium 3.1 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most critical initial therapeutic action?
A.Administer subcutaneous glargine insulin and start oral fluid rehydration
B.Administer an immediate IV bolus of regular insulin at 0.15 units/kg followed by continuous infusion
C.Infuse 100 mL of 8.4% sodium bicarbonate immediately to correct the severe acidosis
D.Administer IV 0.9% normal saline and potassium chloride before initiating insulin infusion
Explanation: Begin isotonic fluid resuscitation and monitored potassium replacement before insulin in this hypokalemic patient. The 2024 international adult DKA consensus recommends delaying insulin until potassium exceeds 3.5 mmol/L. Insulin shifts potassium into cells and could otherwise precipitate dangerous arrhythmias or respiratory muscle weakness.
5A 68-year-old man presents with fever, productive cough with rust-colored sputum, and right pleuritic chest pain. On examination, he is alert and oriented (Glasgow Coma Scale 15). Blood pressure is 84/50 mmHg, respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min, pulse is 108 bpm, and blood urea nitrogen is 8.5 mmol/L. According to the CURB-65 criteria, what is his risk score and appropriate management setting?
A.Score of 4; warrants immediate hospital admission with assessment for critical care
B.Score of 1; suitable for outpatient treatment with oral amoxicillin
C.Score of 2; warrants outpatient management with 48-hour clinical review
D.Score of 4; requires immediate endotracheal intubation regardless of oxygenation
Explanation: The patient scores four: elevated urea, respiratory rate at least 30/min, low blood pressure and age at least 65 years. There is no point for confusion. A CURB-65 score of four indicates high risk and, together with shock, requires urgent hospital treatment and assessment for critical care; intubation depends on the clinical respiratory and airway assessment.
6A 24-year-old woman with known bronchial asthma is brought to the casualty unit severe breathlessness. She is unable to speak in full sentences. On auscultation, breath sounds are barely audible bilaterally with no audible wheezing ('silent chest'). Oxygen saturation is 88% on room air and pulse is 134 bpm. What does the 'silent chest' sign indicate?
A.Spontaneous resolution of bronchospasm indicating clinical recovery
B.Critical airflow limitation with impending respiratory failure requiring urgent escalation of therapy
C.Development of an acute pulmonary embolism rather than bronchospasm
D.Conversion of bronchial asthma to restrictive parenchymal lung disease
Explanation: A 'silent chest' in acute severe asthma indicates severe airway obstruction with airflow velocities too low to generate wheezing sounds, representing life-threatening asthma with impending asphyxia and respiratory arrest. Immediate management requires high-flow supplemental oxygen, continuous nebulized beta-2 agonists with ipratropium bromide, IV hydrocortisone or methylprednisolone, IV magnesium sulfate, and readiness for endotracheal intubation.
7A 36-year-old HIV-positive man with a CD4 count of 35 cells/microL presents with a 2-week history of dull global headache, photophobia, low-grade fever, and lethargy. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals an opening pressure of 280 mmH2O, lymphocytic pleocytosis, and budding encapsulated yeast cells on India ink stain. What is the recommended induction antifungal regimen for this condition?
A.Intravenous acyclovir 10 mg/kg every 8 hours for 14 days
B.High-dose oral fluconazole 200 mg once daily for 6 weeks as monotherapy
C.Single-dose liposomal amphotericin B plus 14 days of flucytosine and high-dose fluconazole
D.Intravenous ceftriaxone 2 g daily plus oral rifampicin
Explanation: WHO's preferred induction regimen for HIV-associated cryptococcal meningitis is a single 10 mg/kg dose of liposomal amphotericin B with 14 days of flucytosine and fluconazole. The oral drugs are essential parts of this regimen, not optional substitutes for one another. Monitor treatment toxicity and actively manage raised intracranial pressure with therapeutic lumbar punctures when indicated.
8A 52-year-old man presents to the hospital with a blood pressure of 220/130 mmHg, bilateral basal crackles, severe shortness of breath, and pink frothy sputum. Fundoscopy reveals bilateral papilledema and flame-shaped hemorrhages. What is the fundamental principle regarding the rate of blood pressure reduction in this hypertensive emergency?
A.Avoid all antihypertensive medication until blood pressure remains elevated for at least 24 hours
B.Rapidly normalize blood pressure to below 120/80 mmHg within the first 15 minutes
C.Administer oral nifedipine sublingually to induce rapid precipitous hypotension
D.Lower mean arterial pressure by no more than 20% to 25% over the first hour to prevent cerebral ischemia
Explanation: Severe hypertension with acute organ injury requires monitored, controlled reduction using an agent appropriate to the affected organ system. Abrupt normalization can compromise cerebral, coronary and renal perfusion; a usual initial MAP reduction is about 20% to 25%, with condition-specific targets. In acute pulmonary edema, a titratable vasodilator such as IV nitroglycerin is appropriate; initiating a beta-blocker during acute pulmonary edema can worsen cardiac failure.
9A 23-year-old male soldier presents with high fever, severe headache, photophobia, vomiting, and confusion of 18 hours duration. On physical examination, temperature is 39.4°C, Kernig and Brudzinski signs are strongly positive, and purpuric petechial skin lesions are noted on his lower limbs. What is the immediate empirical treatment of choice while preparing for lumbar puncture?
A.Immediate intravenous ceftriaxone at a meningitis dose without waiting for lumbar puncture
B.Oral ciprofloxacin 500 mg stat followed by observation for 12 hours
C.Immediate intravenous mannitol infusion without antimicrobial therapy
D.Intramuscular benzylpenicillin 1 million units single dose as complete therapy
Explanation: Suspected bacterial meningitis with a purpuric rash requires immediate parenteral antibiotics, sepsis management and assessment of whether lumbar puncture is safe. Do not delay ceftriaxone for the procedure. Adjunctive corticosteroid decisions depend on the setting and diagnostic findings: WHO advises against their routine use during meningococcal epidemics, so dexamethasone is not an unconditional part of every meningococcal treatment regimen.
10A 48-year-old man with alcoholic liver cirrhosis presents with massive hematemesis and melena. On admission, heart rate is 118 bpm, blood pressure is 86/54 mmHg, and hemoglobin is 6.8 g/dL. Along with airway protection and restrictive blood transfusion targeting a hemoglobin of 7 to 8 g/dL, which pharmacotherapy must be initiated immediately before endoscopy?
A.Intravenous tranexamic acid bolus followed by oral propranolol 80 mg stat
B.Intravenous vasoactive agent (octreotide or terlipressin) plus prophylactic IV ceftriaxone
C.Aggressive crystalloid resuscitation with 4 liters of normal saline to achieve blood pressure >140/90 mmHg
D.Intravenous heparin infusion to prevent portal vein thrombosis
Explanation: In acute variceal hemorrhage, immediate medical management includes hemodynamic stabilization using a restrictive transfusion strategy (target hemoglobin 7-8 g/dL to avoid rebound portal hypertension), intravenous vasoactive drugs (octreotide, somatostatin, or terlipressin) to decrease splanchnic blood flow, and short-term antibiotic prophylaxis (IV ceftriaxone 1 g daily for up to 7 days), which significantly reduces bacterial infections, rebleeding rates, and overall mortality. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is performed as soon as the patient is stabilized.
About the SSGMC Medical Doctor Licensure Examination Practice Questions
Check the official exam sponsor for the exam format, time limit, passing standard, fees, and eligibility requirements. These details are not yet confirmed here.