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100+ Free General Surgery Board Practice Questions

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Sample General Surgery Board Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your General Surgery Board exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 45-year-old male is initiated on total parenteral nutrition (TPN) after a prolonged period of starvation due to severe small bowel obstruction. On day 3 of TPN, he develops muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmias, and confusion. Laboratory studies reveal a serum phosphorus of 1.2 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A.Increase the TPN infusion rate to deliver more calories
B.Administer aggressive intravenous phosphate replacement and reduce caloric intake
C.Administer intravenous insulin to correct hyperglycemia
D.Discontinue TPN immediately and start clear liquid diet
Explanation: Refeeding syndrome is a potentially fatal condition characterized by severe electrolyte shifts (hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia) and fluid retention following the reintroduction of nutrition in chronically malnourished patients. The hallmark is hypophosphatemia, driven by insulin release causing intracellular shifts of phosphate. Management requires immediate reduction of caloric intake (or holding TPN progress) and aggressive intravenous electrolyte replacement.
2A patient undergoing an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is scheduled for incision at 09:00. At what time should the prophylactic dose of cefazolin be administered to ensure maximum tissue concentrations?
A.At 07:00 (2 hours before incision)
B.Between 08:00 and 09:00 (within 60 minutes before incision)
C.Immediately after the skin incision is made
D.Upon arrival in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU)
Explanation: To ensure maximum tissue concentrations of prophylactic antibiotics at the time of incision, the first dose should be administered within 60 minutes prior to the skin incision (or within 120 minutes for vancomycin or fluoroquinolones). Cefazolin is a first-generation cephalosporin with a half-life of about 2 hours, making the 60-minute window optimal.
3Six hours after receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells, a 62-year-old female develops acute dyspnea, hypoxemia (SpO2 85%), and fever. Chest radiograph shows bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Her pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) is normal, and there are no signs of jugular venous distention or peripheral edema. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload (TACO)
B.Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI)
C.Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction
D.Anaphylactic Transfusion Reaction
Explanation: Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI) is characterized by acute onset of dyspnea, hypoxemia, and bilateral pulmonary infiltrates within 6 hours of transfusion, in the absence of left atrial hypertension (normal PCWP). It is caused by donor antibodies against recipient HLA or neutrophil antigens, leading to leukocyte activation and pulmonary capillary leakage. Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload (TACO) would present with elevated PCWP, neck vein distention, and cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
4A 55-year-old postoperative patient who has been receiving prophylactic unfractionated heparin develops a sudden drop in platelet count from 250,000 to 90,000/microL on postoperative day 7, accompanied by a new cold, painful left leg. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A.Discontinue heparin and start a low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) infusion
B.Discontinue heparin and initiate a direct thrombin inhibitor (e.g., argatroban)
C.Transfuse platelets immediately and repeat the platelet count in 2 hours
D.Discontinue heparin and start oral warfarin immediately
Explanation: This presentation is highly suggestive of Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT) Type II, an immune-mediated disorder caused by antibodies to the heparin-platelet factor 4 (PF4) complex. It usually occurs 5-10 days after starting heparin and leads to thrombocytopenia and a paradoxically high risk of venous and arterial thrombosis (e.g., acute limb ischemia). Treatment requires immediate cessation of all heparin products and initiation of a non-heparin anticoagulant, typically a direct thrombin inhibitor like argatroban. Warfarin is contraindicated initially because it can worsen microvascular thrombosis (skin necrosis) by rapidly depleting protein C.
5Which of the following physiological changes is most commonly observed as a direct result of establishing carbon dioxide pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopic surgery?
A.Increased cardiac output and decreased systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
B.Decreased cardiac output, increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR), and decreased renal blood flow
C.Decreased peak airway pressure and increased venous return
D.Respiratory alkalosis due to passive hyperventilation
Explanation: Establishing CO2 pneumoperitoneum (typically at 12-15 mmHg) increases intra-abdominal pressure, causing compression of the vena cava (decreasing venous return/preload) and increasing SVR (afterload), which leads to a decrease in cardiac output. Diaphragmatic elevation increases peak airway pressures and decreases lung compliance. Renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate decrease due to compression of renal parenchyma and veins. Absorption of CO2 causes hypercapnia and respiratory acidosis, not alkalosis.
6During a local block for an inguinal hernia repair under local anesthesia and sedation, the patient suddenly develops perioral numbness, metallic taste, visual disturbances, and muscle twitching. What is the most appropriate first-line rescue therapy for this condition if it progresses to cardiovascular collapse?
A.Intravenous lidocaine bolus
B.Intravenous dantrolene sodium
C.Intravenous 20% lipid emulsion therapy
D.Intravenous amiodarone
Explanation: This patient is exhibiting signs of Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity (LAST), which starts with central nervous system excitation (numbness, metallic taste, seizures) and can progress to cardiovascular collapse (especially with bupivacaine). The definitive treatment for LAST-induced cardiac arrest or severe toxicity is immediate bolus and infusion of 20% lipid emulsion (intralipid), which acts as a 'lipid sink' to extract the lipophilic local anesthetic from cardiac tissue.
7A postoperative patient with a history of chronic mesenteric ischemia develops severe abdominal pain out of proportion to physical examination. Arterial blood gas shows a pH of 7.22, pCO2 of 28 mmHg, and HCO3 of 12 mEq/L. The serum lactate is 6.5 mmol/L. What is the primary acid-base disturbance?
A.Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis
B.High anion gap metabolic acidosis
C.Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
D.Mixed metabolic acidosis and respiratory acidosis
Explanation: The patient has a low pH (7.22, acidosis) and a low bicarbonate (12 mEq/L, metabolic). The pCO2 is low (28 mmHg) representing respiratory compensation (hyperventilation to blow off CO2). The elevated lactate (6.5 mmol/L) indicates anaerobic metabolism due to gut ischemia, which produces lactic acid, a cause of high anion gap metabolic acidosis (HAGMA). The formula for anion gap is Na - (Cl + HCO3). Lactic acidosis is a hallmark cause of HAGMA.
8A patient develops a surgical site infection (SSI) on postoperative day 10. The infection involves the subcutaneous tissue but does not extend into the fascial layer or muscle. How is this SSI classified?
A.Superficial incisional SSI
B.Deep incisional SSI
C.Organ/Space SSI
D.Mucocutaneous SSI
Explanation: According to CDC/NHSN definitions, a superficial incisional SSI involves only skin and subcutaneous tissue. A deep incisional SSI involves deep soft tissues, such as fascial and muscle layers. An organ/space SSI involves any part of the anatomy other than the incision (e.g., peritoneal cavity) that was opened or manipulated during surgery.
9A 72-year-old male is scheduled for an elective ventral hernia repair. He has a history of stable angina and managed hypertension. According to the Revised Cardiac Risk Index (RCRI), which of the following variables is considered a predictor of major perioperative cardiac complications?
A.Age greater than 65 years
B.History of ischemic heart disease
C.History of essential hypertension
D.Obesity (BMI > 30 kg/m2)
Explanation: The Revised Cardiac Risk Index (RCRI or Lee's Criteria) identifies six independent predictors of major cardiac complications: (1) high-risk surgery (intraperitoneal, intrathoracic, suprainguinal vascular), (2) history of ischemic heart disease, (3) history of congestive heart failure, (4) history of cerebrovascular disease, (5) preoperative treatment with insulin, and (6) preoperative serum creatinine > 2.0 mg/dL (177 micromol/L). Essential hypertension, age, and obesity are not among the six RCRI variables.
10A patient in the intensive care unit is diagnosed with septic shock. Despite receiving a 30 mL/kg crystalloid fluid bolus, the patient remains hypotensive with a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 52 mmHg. What is the recommended first-line vasopressor of choice according to the Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines?
A.Dopamine
B.Epinephrine
C.Norepinephrine
D.Vasopressin
Explanation: The Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines recommend norepinephrine as the first-line vasopressor of choice for patients in septic shock who remain hypotensive despite adequate fluid resuscitation, targeting a MAP >= 65 mmHg. Dopamine is associated with higher rates of arrhythmias, and vasopressin is typically added as a second-line agent if MAP cannot be maintained with norepinephrine alone.

About the General Surgery Board Exam

This practice exam covers basic surgical principles, abdomen/gastrointestinal surgery, trauma/critical care, endocrine/breast surgery, and vascular/pediatric oncology.

Assessment

100 multiple-choice questions

Time Limit

3 hours

Passing Score

60%

Exam Fee

Free (Saudi Commission for Health Specialties (SCFHS))

General Surgery Board Exam Content Outline

20%

Basic Surgical Principles

Fluid management, nutrition, wound healing, sepsis, and pre/post-operative care.

20%

Abdomen & Gastrointestinal Surgery

Stomach, small bowel, colorectal, hepatobiliary, and pancreatic surgery.

20%

Trauma & Critical Care Surgery

Management of multi-trauma, surgical ICU care, and surgical emergencies.

20%

Endocrine, Breast & Soft Tissue

Thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, breast oncology, and sarcoma surgery.

20%

Vascular, Pediatric & Oncology

Basic vascular procedures, common pediatric surgical problems, and surgical oncology.

How to Pass the General Surgery Board Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 60%
  • Assessment: 100 multiple-choice questions
  • Time limit: 3 hours
  • Exam fee: Free

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the format of the General Surgery Board exam?

The exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions covering all five content domains.

What is the passing score for the General Surgery Board exam?

Candidates must score at least 60% to pass the exam.