All Practice Exams
100+ Free ObGyn Board Practice Questions
Pass your Saudi Board Obstetrics and Gynecology Final Written Exam exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.
✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately
~75% Pass Rate
100+ Questions
100% Free
Loading practice questions...
Same family resources
Explore More Saudi Board Specialty Exams
Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.
Sample ObGyn Board Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to test your ObGyn Board exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1A 32-year-old G1P0 at 11 weeks of gestation presents to the clinic to discuss prenatal screening for fetal aneuploidies. She has no significant medical history. Which of the following screening tests offers the highest sensitivity and specificity for Down syndrome (trisomy 21)?
A.First-trimester combined screening (PAPP-A, beta-hCG, and nuchal translucency)
B.Second-trimester quadruple screening (MSAFP, hCG, estriol, and inhibin A)
C.Cell-free DNA (cfDNA) screening
D.Integrated screening (first- and second-trimester markers combined)
Explanation: Cell-free DNA (cfDNA) screening has a sensitivity of approximately 99% and a very low false-positive rate (<0.1%) for Down syndrome, making it the most sensitive and specific screening option available, compared to analyte-based maternal serum screens.
2A G2P1 at 38 weeks of gestation is undergoing a biophysical profile (BPP) for decreased fetal movements. The ultrasound demonstrates: 1 episode of fetal breathing lasting 45 seconds, 3 discrete body movements, 2 episodes of limb extension with return to flexion, and a deepest vertical pocket of amniotic fluid measuring 1.5 cm. The non-stress test (NST) is non-reactive. What is the total BPP score for this patient?
A.8/10
B.6/10
C.4/10
D.2/10
Explanation: The BPP score is 6/10. Points are awarded as follows: Fetal breathing (2 points for >=1 episode of >=30s - met), Gross body movements (2 points for >=3 movements - met), Fetal tone (2 points for >=1 flexion/extension - met), Amniotic fluid (0 points because the deepest pocket is <2 cm - not met), and NST (0 points for non-reactive - not met). Total = 2 + 2 + 2 + 0 + 0 = 6/10.
3A 25-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks of gestation presents in active labor. On initial assessment, her cervix is 4 cm dilated, 80% effaced, and the fetal station is -1. Contractions are occurring every 3 minutes. Four hours later, her cervical exam is unchanged at 4 cm, but contractions have spaced out to every 5-6 minutes. She is comfortable with epidural analgesia. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A.Perform an immediate cesarean section for arrest of dilation
B.Perform an artificial rupture of membranes (amniotomy) and initiate oxytocin augmentation
C.Administer IV bolus of fluids and reassess in another 4 hours
D.Discharge the patient home and advise her to return when contractions are stronger
Explanation: Active labor is now defined as starting at 6 cm dilation. At 4 cm, the patient is still in the latent phase. Since her contractions are sub-optimal and she is not progressing, amniotomy and oxytocin augmentation is the standard method to address labor protraction or delay in the latent phase, prior to diagnosing arrest.
4During the vaginal delivery of a 4.1 kg infant to a G3P2 patient, the fetal head is delivered but immediately retracts against the perineum (turtle sign). Gentle downward traction fails to deliver the anterior shoulder. What is the immediate first step in the management of this obstetric emergency?
A.Apply fundal pressure to help push the shoulder past the symphysis pubis
B.Perform a generous episiotomy
C.Hyperflex the maternal hips against the abdomen (McRoberts maneuver) and apply suprapubic pressure
D.Attempt to deliver the posterior arm
Explanation: The clinical picture describes shoulder dystocia. The first-line interventions are the McRoberts maneuver (hyperflexion of maternal hips) and suprapubic pressure, which resolve up to 90% of cases by altering pelvic diameters and rotating the fetal shoulder.
5A G2P1 patient is in the third stage of labor. To minimize the risk of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH), which component of the active management of the third stage of labor (AMTSL) is considered the most critical and effective?
A.Early clamping and cutting of the umbilical cord (within 30 seconds)
B.Controlled cord traction (Brandt-Andrews maneuver) to deliver the placenta
C.Prophylactic administration of a uterotonic agent (e.g., oxytocin) immediately after delivery of the infant
D.Routine manual exploration of the uterine cavity
Explanation: Prophylactic administration of a uterotonic agent (preferably oxytocin, 10 units IM or IV) is the single most important and effective component of active management of the third stage of labor to prevent postpartum hemorrhage.
6A G1P0 at 33 weeks of gestation is admitted with preterm labor and a prolonged second stage of labor. The fetal head is at +2 station, occiput anterior. Which of the following represents an absolute contraindication to performing a vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery in this patient?
A.Gestational age of 33 weeks
B.Epidural analgesia in place
C.Fetal head station at +2
D.Occiput anterior position
Explanation: A gestational age of less than 34 weeks is an absolute contraindication to vacuum-assisted delivery because of the high risk of fetal intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) and subgaleal hemorrhage in premature infants due to their fragile vasculature.
7A pregnant patient with irregular menses presents for her first prenatal visit. An ultrasound at this visit measures a crown-rump length (CRL) corresponding to 9 weeks and 2 days. The patient's last menstrual period (LMP) suggests a gestational age of 10 weeks and 0 days. What is the most appropriate method to establish her final estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A.Keep the EDD based on the LMP, as the discrepancy is less than 7 days
B.Change the EDD to match the ultrasound CRL, as the discrepancy is greater than 5 days at this gestational age
C.Average the dates between the LMP and the CRL
D.Perform a repeat ultrasound in 2 weeks to see which date the fetus is tracking closer to
Explanation: Per ACOG, ultrasound dating supersedes the LMP only when the discrepancy exceeds a gestational-age-specific threshold: >5 days at or before 8 6/7 weeks, and >7 days between 9 0/7 and 13 6/7 weeks (by CRL). At a CRL of 9 weeks 2 days, the applicable threshold is >7 days. The LMP-to-CRL discrepancy here is 5 days, which does not exceed 7 days, so the estimated date of delivery should remain based on the LMP.
8A G2P1 patient at 12 weeks of gestation is found to have asymptomatic bacteriuria with Group B Streptococcus (GBS) (>10^5 CFU/mL) on routine urine culture. She is treated with cephalexin and her symptoms resolve. What is the recommended management regarding GBS prophylaxis for her delivery?
A.Perform routine GBS vaginal-rectal screening at 36 0/7 to 37 6/7 weeks; administer intrapartum prophylaxis only if positive
B.Administer intrapartum GBS prophylaxis at the time of delivery without repeating the screening culture at 36-37 weeks
C.No intrapartum prophylaxis is needed because she was successfully treated in the first trimester
D.Prescribe daily oral suppressive antibiotics for the remainder of the pregnancy and avoid IV antibiotics in labor
Explanation: GBS bacteriuria during the current pregnancy (at any concentration) is a marker for heavy maternal colonization and is an automatic indication for intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis. A vaginal-rectal culture at 36-37 weeks is not necessary because prophylaxis is already indicated.
9A 29-year-old G3P0 presenting at 8 weeks of gestation has a history of two consecutive second-trimester pregnancy losses, both characterized by painless cervical dilation followed by delivery of previable fetuses. Her physical exam is normal. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?
A.Weekly transvaginal ultrasound cervical length measurements starting at 16 weeks
B.Placement of a history-indicated cervical cerclage at 12-14 weeks of gestation
C.Progesterone vaginal suppositories daily starting at 16 weeks
D.Immediate bed rest and restriction of all physical activity
Explanation: This patient has a classic history of cervical insufficiency (2 painless second-trimester losses). The standard of care for history-indicated cervical insufficiency is the placement of a cervical cerclage (e.g., McDonald or Shirodkar) at 12-14 weeks of gestation, which reduces the risk of preterm birth.
10A G1P0 patient delivers a healthy term infant. The third stage of labor is actively managed with immediate administration of IV oxytocin. How long should the third stage of labor be allowed to progress before a diagnosis of a retained placenta is officially made, necessitating consideration of manual removal?
A.15 minutes
B.30 minutes
C.45 minutes
D.60 minutes
Explanation: A retained placenta is defined as the lack of placental delivery within 30 minutes of delivery of the infant, when active management of the third stage of labor is utilized. At this point, manual removal is typically indicated to prevent severe bleeding.
About the ObGyn Board Exam
This practice exam covers general obstetrics, high-risk pregnancy, general gynecology, gynecologic oncology, and reproductive endocrinology/infertility.
Assessment
100 multiple-choice questions
Time Limit
3 hours
Passing Score
60%
Exam Fee
Free (Saudi Commission for Health Specialties (SCFHS))
ObGyn Board Exam Content Outline
20%
General Obstetrics
Normal pregnancy, labor and delivery, postpartum care, and basic fetal monitoring.
20%
High-Risk Pregnancy
Preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, multiple gestations, and preterm labor.
20%
General Gynecology
Menstrual disorders, pelvic pain, benign uterine/ovarian conditions, and urogynecology.
20%
Gynecologic Oncology
Cervical, uterine, and ovarian cancers diagnosis, staging, and management.
20%
Reproductive Endocrinology & Infertility
Infertility workup, amenorrhea, PCOS, and assisted reproductive technologies.
How to Pass the ObGyn Board Exam
What You Need to Know
- Passing score: 60%
- Assessment: 100 multiple-choice questions
- Time limit: 3 hours
- Exam fee: Free
Keys to Passing
- Complete 500+ practice questions
- Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
- Focus on highest-weighted sections
- Use our AI tutor for tough concepts
Frequently Asked Questions
What is the format of the ObGyn Board exam?
The exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions covering all five content domains.
What is the passing score for the ObGyn Board exam?
Candidates must score at least 60% to pass the exam.