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100+ Free Internal Medicine Board Practice Questions

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Sample Internal Medicine Board Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Internal Medicine Board exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with 2 hours of crushing substernal chest pain. The ECG reveals 3-mm ST-segment elevation in leads V2-V4. The nearest PCI-capable hospital is 90 minutes away, but transfer and door-to-balloon time is expected to exceed 120 minutes. What is the most appropriate reperfusion strategy?
A.Immediate fibrinolytic therapy with tenecteplase followed by transfer for coronary angiography
B.Transfer for primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) despite the expected delay
C.Intravenous heparin infusion and double antiplatelet therapy with delayed outpatient angiography
D.Emergency coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) surgery
Explanation: According to the ACC/AHA guidelines, for patients with ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) presenting to a non-PCI-capable hospital, primary PCI is preferred if it can be performed within 120 minutes of first medical contact. If the expected time to primary PCI exceeds 120 minutes, immediate fibrinolytic therapy (unless contraindicated) should be administered within 30 minutes of arrival, followed by routine transfer for angiography and rescue PCI if needed.
2A 64-year-old woman with a history of chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF, EF 32%) presents for a routine follow-up. She is currently asymptomatic on bisoprolol 5 mg daily and lisinopril 10 mg daily. Her blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg and heart rate is 64 bpm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in optimizing her medical therapy?
A.Switch lisinopril to sacubitril-valsartan, and add spironolactone and an SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin/empagliflozin)
B.Increase lisinopril to 20 mg daily and follow up in 3 months
C.Add digoxin to improve left ventricular contractility
D.Add amlodipine for additional blood pressure and heart rate control
Explanation: Guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT) for HFrEF (Stage C) consists of four pharmacological pillars: an ARNI (sacubitril-valsartan preferred over ACEi/ARB), an evidence-based beta-blocker (bisoprolol, carvedilol, or metoprolol succinate), a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (MRA, e.g., spironolactone), and an SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin or empagliflozin). Since she is on sub-maximal therapy and stable, transitioning to an ARNI and initiating an MRA and SGLT2i is indicated to reduce mortality and hospitalization.
3A 71-year-old man with hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and chronic kidney disease (eGFR 42 mL/min/1.73 m²) is newly diagnosed with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation. What is the most appropriate management for stroke prevention in this patient?
A.Oral anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban
B.Dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel
C.Oral anticoagulation with warfarin targeting an INR of 2.0-3.0
D.Aspirin 81 mg daily monotherapy
Explanation: This patient has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of at least 3 (hypertension 1, diabetes 1, age 65-74 1). Note that chronic kidney disease is not itself a CHA2DS2-VASc component (it is added in the modified R2CHA2DS2-VASc score). In patients with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASc score >= 2 in men (or >= 3 in women), oral anticoagulation is indicated. DOACs (such as apixaban, rivaroxaban, dabigatran, or edoxaban) are preferred over warfarin due to a lower risk of intracranial hemorrhage and superior or non-inferior efficacy, and apixaban is well tolerated even in mild-to-moderate CKD (eGFR > 30).
4A 28-year-old woman is referred for evaluation of resistant hypertension. She has been on three antihypertensive medications (amlodipine, lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide) at optimal doses for 6 months. On physical examination, a bruit is heard over her right flank. Renal artery duplex ultrasound suggests stenosis of the mid-to-distal right renal artery. What is the most likely diagnosis and preferred management?
A.Fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD); percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) without stenting
B.Atherosclerotic renal artery stenosis (ARAS); renal artery stenting
C.Pheochromocytoma; surgical resection of the adrenal gland
D.Primary aldosteronism; spironolactone titration
Explanation: Fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD) typically affects young females and involves the mid-to-distal renal artery ('string of beads' appearance). For patients with hypertension resistant to medical therapy or with renal dysfunction, revascularization is indicated. The preferred procedure for FMD is percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) without stenting. Stenting is reserved for dissection or vessel rupture.
5A 34-year-old man presents with sharp, retrosternal chest pain that is worse when lying flat and improves when sitting forward. He reports having a mild upper respiratory tract infection 2 weeks ago. His ECG shows diffuse, concave-upward ST-segment elevation with PR-segment depression in lead II and PR-segment elevation in lead aVR. What is the first-line pharmacotherapy for this patient?
A.High-dose ibuprofen or aspirin combined with colchicine
B.Intravenous thrombolysis with alteplase
C.Low-dose oral prednisone monotherapy
D.Immediate coronary angiography and percutaneous coronary intervention
Explanation: The clinical presentation (pleuritic chest pain relieved by sitting forward, post-viral) and ECG findings (diffuse ST elevation, PR depression, aVR PR elevation) are diagnostic of acute pericarditis. First-line therapy consists of high-dose NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen 600-800 mg TID or aspirin 750-1000 mg Q8H for post-MI patients) tapered over 1-2 weeks, combined with colchicine (0.5-0.6 mg daily or BID for 3 months) to reduce recurrence rates.
6A 78-year-old man presents with progressive exertional dyspnea and lightheadedness. On physical examination, he has a harsh, late-peaking 3/6 systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border that radiates to his carotids, along with a delayed and weak carotid pulse (pulsus parvus et tardus). Echocardiography reveals a calcified aortic valve with an area of 0.8 cm², a mean gradient of 44 mmHg, and a left ventricular ejection fraction of 55%. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A.Aortic valve replacement (either surgical or transcatheter)
B.Medical therapy with beta-blockers and loop diuretics, with close follow-up
C.Balloon aortic valvuloplasty as a definitive procedure
D.Repeat echocardiography in 6-12 months
Explanation: This patient has symptomatic, severe aortic stenosis (valve area < 1.0 cm², mean gradient >= 40 mmHg, classic symptoms of dyspnea and lightheadedness). Symptomatic severe AS has a poor prognosis without intervention (2-year survival < 50%). Intervention (either Surgical Aortic Valve Replacement [SAVR] or Transcatheter Aortic Valve Replacement [TAVR]) is a Class I indication. TAVR is preferred in older patients or those at high surgical risk.
7A 22-year-old male athlete is evaluated after experiencing an episode of exertional syncope. His uncle died suddenly at age 26. On examination, a 3/6 systolic murmur is heard at the left sternal border. The murmur increases in intensity during the strain phase of a Valsalva maneuver and decreases with passive leg elevation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)
B.Aortic valve stenosis
C.Mitral regurgitation due to prolapse
D.Physiological flow murmur of an athlete
Explanation: Exertional syncope, a family history of sudden cardiac death in a young relative, and a systolic murmur that increases with Valsalva (decreases venous return/preload, reducing LV size and increasing outflow obstruction) and decreases with passive leg raise (increases preload, widening the outflow tract) point to Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy (HOCM). AS and MR murmurs behave opposite to HOCM during these maneuvers (they soften with Valsalva).
8A 45-year-old woman with a history of mitral valve prolapse with moderate regurgitation is scheduled for a dental extraction involving manipulation of the gingival tissue. She has no other medical history or drug allergies. What is the current AHA/ESC guideline recommendation regarding infective endocarditis (IE) prophylaxis for this patient?
A.No antibiotic prophylaxis is indicated for this patient
B.Amoxicillin 2 g orally 1 hour prior to the procedure
C.Clindamycin 600 mg orally 1 hour prior to the procedure
D.Intravenous ampicillin 2 g administered 30 minutes before the procedure
Explanation: According to the AHA and ESC guidelines, infective endocarditis prophylaxis is only recommended for patients at the highest risk of adverse outcomes from IE undergoing dental procedures that involve manipulation of gingival tissue or perforation of the oral mucosa. High-risk conditions include: prosthetic cardiac valves, prosthetic material used for valve repair, prior history of IE, unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease, and cardiac transplant recipients who develop valvulopathy. Mitral valve prolapse (even with regurgitation) does not fall into these categories, so prophylaxis is not recommended.
9A 42-year-old man presents with generalized swelling, weight gain of 8 kg, and foamy urine over the last 3 weeks. Urinalysis shows 4+ protein, and a 24-hour urine collection reveals 6.8 g of protein. Serum albumin is 2.1 g/dL, total cholesterol is 310 mg/dL, and serum creatinine is 0.9 mg/dL. Serum serology for phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R) antibody is strongly positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Primary membranous nephropathy
B.Minimal change disease
C.Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)
D.Diabetic nephropathy
Explanation: This patient presents with classic nephrotic syndrome (anasarca, proteinuria > 3.5 g/day, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia). The presence of serum antibodies against the M-type phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R) is highly specific (approximately 70-80% sensitive and > 95% specific) for primary (idiopathic) membranous nephropathy, which is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in non-diabetic white adults.
10A 29-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) presents with new-onset lower extremity edema and worsening proteinuria (uPCR 3.2 g/g). A renal biopsy shows diffuse segmental and global endocapillary proliferation involving 60% of glomeruli, with subendothelial immune complex deposits ('wire loops') and active inflammation. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial induction therapy?
A.Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF) or intravenous cyclophosphamide, combined with high-dose corticosteroids
B.High-dose oral prednisone monotherapy
C.Rituximab monotherapy
D.Hydroxychloroquine combined with low-dose prednisone
Explanation: The renal biopsy shows Class IV lupus nephritis (diffuse proliferative lupus nephritis), which carries a high risk of progression to end-stage renal disease (ESRD) if untreated. The standard induction therapy for proliferative lupus nephritis (Class III or IV) consists of immunosuppression with either mycophenolate mofetil (MMF) or intravenous cyclophosphamide (low-dose Euro-Lupus regimen or high-dose NIH regimen), combined with intravenous methylprednisolone pulses followed by high-dose oral prednisone.

About the Internal Medicine Board Exam

This practice exam covers cardiovascular, renal, pulmonary, critical care, gastroenterology, endocrinology, rheumatology, infectious diseases, hematology, oncology, and geriatrics.

Assessment

100 multiple-choice questions

Time Limit

3 hours

Passing Score

60%

Exam Fee

Free (Saudi Commission for Health Specialties (SCFHS))

Internal Medicine Board Exam Content Outline

20%

Cardiovascular & Renal Medicine

CAD, heart failure, arrhythmias, valvular disease, AKI, and CKD management.

20%

Pulmonary, Critical Care & Gastroenterology

COPD, asthma, ILD, ICU mechanics, peptic ulcer, IBD, and liver diseases.

20%

Endocrinology, Rheumatology & Infectious

Thyroid/adrenal disorders, RA, SLE, vasculitis, pneumonia, meningitis, and HIV.

20%

Hematology & Oncology

Anemias, leukemias, lymphomas, clotting disorders, and solid tumor management.

20%

General Internal & Geriatrics

Preventive medicine, geriatric syndromes, and general medical care.

How to Pass the Internal Medicine Board Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 60%
  • Assessment: 100 multiple-choice questions
  • Time limit: 3 hours
  • Exam fee: Free

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the format of the Internal Medicine Board exam?

The exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions covering all five content domains.

What is the passing score for the Internal Medicine Board exam?

Candidates must score at least 60% to pass the exam.