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In a threat hunt for lateral movement, an analyst wants to find hosts that have had a large number of distinct source hosts authenticate to them within a short window — indicating potential lateral movement sweeps. Which Splunk SPL approach achieves this?

A
B
C
D
to track
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Key Facts: PSAP Exam

$499

Exam Fee

TCM Security

3 + 2 days

Exam + Report Window

TCM Security

25+ hours

SOC 201 Training Included

TCM Security

1 free

Retake Included

TCM Security

No expiry

Certification Validity

TCM Security

Non-proctored

Exam Supervision

TCM Security

The PSAP is TCM Security's intermediate-to-advanced SOC certification focused on proactive threat hunting and DFIR. The 3-day practical exam requires you to investigate a realistic corporate compromise, map attacker TTPs to MITRE ATT&CK, and submit a professional incident response report within 2 additional days. Powered by the SOC 201 course (25+ hours). Cost: $499 including 1 retake. This knowledge-prep practice test covers the conceptual body of knowledge; the real exam tests hands-on investigation skills in a live environment.

Sample PSAP Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your PSAP exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which threat hunting maturity model level describes an organization that relies exclusively on automated alerting with no proactive hunting capability?
A.Level 0 — Initial
B.Level 1 — Minimal
C.Level 2 — Procedural
D.Level 3 — Innovative
Explanation: The Hunting Maturity Model (HMM) places Level 0 (Initial) organizations at the lowest tier — they depend entirely on reactive, automated alerts and have no proactive threat hunting program. Movement to Level 1 introduces manual indicator-based searches, while higher levels involve procedural and hypothesis-driven hunting.
2A threat hunter is building a hypothesis before a hunt. Which input best drives a TTP-based hunting hypothesis according to the MITRE ATT&CK framework?
A.A specific ATT&CK technique observed in recent threat reports
B.Known bad IP addresses from a threat feed
C.Open vulnerability scanner findings
D.Firewall block counts from the past 24 hours
Explanation: TTP-based hypotheses are anchored to specific adversary behaviors (techniques and sub-techniques) from ATT&CK rather than atomic indicators like IPs. Starting from a technique — such as T1059.001 (PowerShell) — lets hunters look for behavioral patterns that persist even when indicators rotate.
3During an investigation, an analyst observes a Windows process with a parent of 'svchost.exe' spawning 'cmd.exe' which in turn executes 'whoami.exe'. Which MITRE ATT&CK technique does this process tree most strongly suggest?
A.T1059.003 — Windows Command Shell
B.T1055 — Process Injection
C.T1543.003 — Windows Service
D.T1078 — Valid Accounts
Explanation: Seeing 'cmd.exe' spawned from a service host and then executing discovery commands like 'whoami.exe' is a classic indicator of T1059.003 (Windows Command Shell execution). The process tree pattern — svchost → cmd.exe → whoami — is common in post-exploitation scenarios where attackers use shell commands for local reconnaissance.
4Which PowerShell command-line artifact in Windows Event ID 4104 (Script Block Logging) most strongly indicates an attacker is attempting to bypass the Execution Policy?
A.-ExecutionPolicy Bypass
B.-NonInteractive
C.-WindowStyle Hidden
D.-EncodedCommand
Explanation: The '-ExecutionPolicy Bypass' flag directly overrides PowerShell's script execution policy, allowing unsigned scripts to run without restriction. This is one of the most commonly logged indicators in Event ID 4104 for malicious PowerShell use. Script Block Logging captures the decoded script content, making this flag clearly visible.
5An analyst reviews Splunk logs and notices a spike in outbound DNS queries from a single endpoint to randomized 30-character subdomains of a single apex domain. What technique does this most likely indicate?
A.DNS Tunneling (C2)
B.DNS Cache Poisoning
C.DNS Zone Transfer
D.BGP Hijacking
Explanation: High-volume outbound DNS queries to algorithmically generated or randomized long subdomains of a fixed apex domain is the hallmark of DNS tunneling used for command-and-control (T1071.004). Attackers encode data in subdomains to exfiltrate data or receive instructions while blending into normal DNS traffic.
6When performing a host-based forensic acquisition, which approach best preserves evidence integrity for live volatile memory collection?
A.Reboot the host before imaging to clear unstable data
B.Use a write blocker and image memory to a network share immediately
C.Dump memory using a tool like WinPmem before any other actions on the system
D.Copy the pagefile.sys to preserve swap data first
Explanation: Volatile memory (RAM) must be captured first before any other actions because it contains running processes, network connections, encryption keys, and injected code that will be lost on reboot or system state change. WinPmem is a standard open-source tool used for live memory acquisition on Windows.
7Which Windows artifact records the execution of programs even when they have been deleted from disk, making it valuable for proving execution during a DFIR investigation?
A.Windows Event Log (Security)
B.MFT ($MFT)
C.Prefetch files (.pf)
D.AmCache.hve
Explanation: Windows Prefetch files are created for executables that run on a system and store the executable name, path hash, run count, and last eight run times. Critically, Prefetch entries persist after the binary is deleted, providing strong evidence of execution history that can survive anti-forensics attempts.
8During an intrusion timeline reconstruction, an analyst needs to determine the first time a specific DLL was loaded into a process. Which data source most directly provides this information?
A.Sysmon Event ID 7 (ImageLoad)
B.Windows Security Event ID 4688 (Process Creation)
C.Sysmon Event ID 1 (Process Create)
D.Windows System Event ID 7036 (Service State Change)
Explanation: Sysmon Event ID 7 (ImageLoad) records when a DLL or other image file is loaded into a process, including the image path, hash, and the process that performed the load. This is the authoritative source for DLL load history and is essential for detecting DLL hijacking, side-loading, and reflective injection.
9A threat hunter is looking for lateral movement via PsExec. Which combination of artifacts provides the strongest corroborating evidence of PsExec execution on a target host?
A.PSEXESVC service creation (Event ID 7045) + ADMIN$ share access (Event ID 5140)
B.Failed logon events (Event ID 4625) + DNS query logs
C.Scheduled task creation (Event ID 4698) + WMI subscription events
D.Firewall allow rule creation + AppLocker events
Explanation: PsExec works by copying its service binary (PSEXESVC.exe) to the ADMIN$ share and creating a service on the target. Event ID 7045 (new service installed) showing PSEXESVC combined with Event ID 5140 (network share accessed) for ADMIN$ on the same target host and timeframe is definitive evidence of PsExec lateral movement.
10In Splunk, a threat hunter wants to find all PowerShell processes where the encoded command argument length exceeds 500 characters. Which SPL clause correctly filters for this?
A.| where len(CommandLine) > 500 AND CommandLine LIKE "%EncodedCommand%"
B.| stats count by CommandLine | where count > 500
C.| eval cmd_len=len(CommandLine) | where cmd_len > 500 | search CommandLine=*EncodedCommand*
D.| table CommandLine | eval length > 500
Explanation: The correct SPL pattern uses eval to calculate string length, filters with a where clause, then searches for the EncodedCommand flag. This leverages Splunk's eval/where pipeline correctly. The len() function computes character length of the field, which is the right approach for detecting abnormally long encoded commands.

About the PSAP Practice Questions

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