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100+ Free Fisheries Technologist Practice Questions

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Fisheries Technologist Exam

75%

Required weighted general average score to pass

PRC Board Guidelines

2 Days

Duration of the full licensing board examination

PRC Examination Schedule

The PRC Fisheries Technologist Licensure Examination is the licensing board exam in the Philippines evaluating aquaculture, capture fisheries, post-harvest, and ecology. This free practice bank provides comprehensive board-style prep.

Sample Fisheries Technologist Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Fisheries Technologist exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which water quality parameter is the most critical limiting factor in intensive aquaculture pond systems, requiring daily monitoring?
A.Dissolved oxygen
B.Water temperature
C.Salinity
D.Turbidity
Explanation: Dissolved oxygen (DO) is the most critical and frequently limiting water quality parameter in intensive aquaculture systems because fish and other aquatic organisms depend on it for aerobic respiration. Depletion of DO can lead to rapid mortality, reduced feed intake, and increased susceptibility to disease. While temperature, salinity, and turbidity are important, they rarely fluctuate as rapidly or cause as immediate catastrophic loss as sudden DO depletion.
2Under what water quality conditions does unionized ammonia (NH3), which is highly toxic to fish, increase significantly?
A.High pH and high temperature
B.Low pH and low temperature
C.High pH and low temperature
D.Low pH and high temperature
Explanation: In aquatic environments, total ammonia nitrogen exists in two forms: unionized ammonia (NH3, toxic) and ionized ammonium (NH4+, non-toxic). The equilibrium shifts toward the toxic unionized NH3 form as pH and temperature increase. At high pH, there are fewer hydrogen ions to protonate NH3 into NH4+, and higher temperatures further accelerate this chemical shift, increasing the toxicity risk for aquatic life.
3An aquaculture facility stocking milkfish (Chanos chanos) records a total feed consumption of 1,200 kg and a net fish biomass increase of 800 kg. What is the Feed Conversion Ratio (FCR) of this culture period?
A.1.50
B.0.67
C.2.00
D.1.20
Explanation: The Feed Conversion Ratio (FCR) is calculated by dividing the total feed consumed by the net biomass weight gained (FCR = Feed Given / Weight Gain). In this scenario, FCR = 1,200 kg / 800 kg = 1.50. This means 1.5 kg of feed was required to produce 1.0 kg of milkfish biomass. An FCR of 1.50 is typical for semi-intensive brackishwater milkfish systems.
4A fishpond measuring 1.5 hectares is to be stocked with Nile tilapia fingerlings at a density of 5 fish per square meter. What is the total number of fingerlings required?
A.75,000 fingerlings
B.15,000 fingerlings
C.7,500 fingerlings
D.750,000 fingerlings
Explanation: One hectare (ha) is equal to 10,000 square meters. Therefore, a 1.5-hectare pond has an area of 15,000 square meters (1.5 x 10,000). At a stocking density of 5 fish per square meter, the total number of fingerlings required is 15,000 sq m x 5 fish/sq m = 75,000 fingerlings.
5Which reproductive strategy is characteristic of the female Nile tilapia (Oreochromis niloticus) during spawning?
A.Maternal mouthbrooding
B.Paternal mouthbrooding
C.Substrate nesting without parental care
D.Broadcast spawning in pelagic waters
Explanation: Female Nile tilapia (Oreochromis niloticus) practice maternal mouthbrooding, where the female gathers the fertilized eggs into her mouth for incubation and protection. During this brooding period, which lasts 1-2 weeks, she abstains from feeding until the fry absorb their yolk sacs and swim freely. This strategy significantly increases offspring survival rates compared to substrate-nesting species with no care.
6What is the correct chronological sequence of larval stages in the hatchery culture of the giant tiger prawn (Penaeus monodon)?
A.Nauplius, Zoea, Mysis, Postlarva
B.Zoea, Nauplius, Mysis, Postlarva
C.Nauplius, Mysis, Zoea, Postlarva
D.Zoea, Mysis, Nauplius, Postlarva
Explanation: The larval development of Penaeus monodon consists of four distinct stages: Nauplius (non-feeding, relies on yolk), Zoea (starts feeding on phytoplankton), Mysis (resembles tiny shrimp, feeds on zooplankton), and Postlarva (settles to benthic habitats and feeds on detritus and artificial microdiets). Recognizing these stages is vital for hatchery technicians to adjust feeding regimes and water quality management.
7Which tissues are the primary targets of replication for the White Spot Syndrome Virus (WSSV) in penaeid shrimp?
A.Ectodermal and mesodermal tissues, such as cuticular epithelium and connective tissue
B.Endodermal tissues, such as the midgut and hepatopancreas
C.Only the compound eyes and optic nerve
D.Only the reproductive organs and gonadal connective tissue
Explanation: White Spot Syndrome Virus (WSSV) is a dsDNA virus that targets tissues of ectodermal and mesodermal origin. The cuticular hypodermis, gill epithelium, connective tissues, and hematopoietic tissues undergo severe necrosis, characterized by hypertrophied nuclei and eosinophilic to basophilic intranuclear inclusion bodies. The endodermal hepatopancreas is generally spared, which is an important diagnostic differentiator in histology.
8A cohort of fish grows from an initial average weight of 10 g to a final average weight of 50 g over a culture period of 40 days. What is the Specific Growth Rate (SGR) of this cohort?
A.4.02% per day
B.1.00% per day
C.2.50% per day
D.3.24% per day
Explanation: Specific Growth Rate (SGR) is calculated using the formula: SGR = [(ln(W_final) - ln(W_initial)) / days] x 100. Substituting the values: SGR = [(ln(50) - ln(10)) / 40] x 100 = [(3.912 - 2.303) / 40] x 100 = [1.609 / 40] x 100 = 0.0402 x 100 = 4.02% per day.
9What biological process occurs within the biofilter of a Recirculating Aquaculture System (RAS) to convert toxic nitrogenous wastes?
A.Nitrification of ammonia to nitrite, and then to nitrate by aerobic bacteria
B.Denitrification of nitrate to nitrogen gas by anaerobic bacteria
C.Assimilation of ammonium directly into bacterial biomass without oxygen
D.Photosynthetic assimilation of ammonia by microalgae
Explanation: In a Recirculating Aquaculture System (RAS), the biofilter utilizes aerobic nitrifying bacteria to detoxify excreted ammonia. Nitrosomonas bacteria oxidize ammonia (NH3) to nitrite (NO2-), which is also highly toxic. Then, Nitrobacter bacteria oxidize nitrite to nitrate (NO3-), which is relatively non-toxic to fish and tolerated at higher concentrations. This aerobic process requires high dissolved oxygen and sufficient alkalinity.
10What is the recommended Nitrogen-to-Phosphorus (N:P) ratio in fertilizer applications to promote a stable diatom bloom in brackishwater milkfish ponds?
A.10:1 to 16:1
B.1:1 to 2:1
C.100:1 to 150:1
D.5:1 to 8:1
Explanation: To promote the growth of beneficial microalgae, particularly diatoms (which are favored by milkfish feeding on benthic mat 'lablab'), an N:P ratio of 10:1 to 16:1 is recommended. This ratio mirrors the Redfield ratio of marine organic matter. A lower N:P ratio often triggers blooms of cyanobacteria (blue-green algae), which can cause off-flavor issues, gill blockage, and sudden die-offs.

About the Fisheries Technologist Exam

The PRC Fisheries Technologist Licensure Examination is the professional licensing exam for fisheries technologists in the Philippines. It evaluates candidates on their proficiency in aquaculture, capture fisheries, post-harvest technology, and aquatic resources and ecology. Passing this exam grants registration and license to practice as a fisheries technologist.

Assessment

Two-day board examination consisting of multiple-choice questions across core fisheries subject papers.

Time Limit

Two days (varying hours per subject paper)

Passing Score

A weighted general average of at least 75%, with no grade below 60% in any subject paper.

Exam Fee

Standard PRC application and examination fees apply. (Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) - Board of Fisheries)

Fisheries Technologist Exam Content Outline

25%

Aquaculture

Fish culture, pond construction, feeds and feeding, fish diseases, and hatchery management.

25%

Capture Fisheries

Fishing gear and methods, navigation, seamanship, and marine fisheries management.

25%

Post-Harvest Fisheries

Fish processing, quality control, value addition, and preservation techniques.

25%

Aquatic Resources and Ecology

Limnology, marine biology, conservation, and environmental laws.

How to Pass the Fisheries Technologist Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: A weighted general average of at least 75%, with no grade below 60% in any subject paper.
  • Assessment: Two-day board examination consisting of multiple-choice questions across core fisheries subject papers.
  • Time limit: Two days (varying hours per subject paper)
  • Exam fee: Standard PRC application and examination fees apply.

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Fisheries Technologist Study Tips from Top Performers

1Focus on pond design, stocking density calculations, and feeding rate formulas.
2Review different types of fishing gears, classification of nets, and seamanship terms.
3Study fish processing methods like salting, drying, smoking, and canning quality control standards.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the requirements to take the Fisheries Technologist board exam?

You must be a graduate of BS Fisheries or related degree from a recognized school, and submit the required PRC application documents.

What is the passing score for the exam?

You must achieve a weighted general average of at least 75%, with no grade below 60% in any subject paper.