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Free Practice Questions for GCE A/L Engineering Technology

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Exam pass rate: Approximately 65% to 72% pass rate (Grade S or above) nationally among Technology stream candidates.
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Key Facts: GCE A/L Engineering Technology Exam

50 MCQs

Paper 1 Multiple-Choice Question Count

Department of Examinations, Sri Lanka

5 Hours

Total Examination Time (Paper 1: 2h + Paper 2: 3h)

Department of Examinations, Sri Lanka

Subject 65

Official National Department Subject Code

National Institute of Education (NIE) Sri Lanka

Grade S+

Passing Benchmark for University Entrance

University Grants Commission (UGC) Sri Lanka

3 Media

Offered in Sinhala, Tamil, and English

Ministry of Education, Sri Lanka

Sri Lanka GCE A/L Engineering Technology (Subject Code 65) is the primary specialized technical subject of the Technology stream, featuring a 50-MCQ Paper 1 and a structured Paper 2 assessing core engineering fields.

Sample GCE A/L Engineering Technology Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the GCE A/L Engineering Technology exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which chemical compound in Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC) is primarily responsible for the rapid development of early strength during the first 7 to 14 days of hydration?
A.Tricalcium silicate (C3S / Alite)
B.Dicalcium silicate (C2S / Belite)
C.Tricalcium aluminate (C3A / Celite)
D.Tetracalcium aluminoferrite (C4AF / Felite)
Explanation: Tricalcium silicate (C3S), commonly known as alite, hydrates rapidly and contributes to high early compressive strength in concrete within the initial 7 to 14 days. Dicalcium silicate (C2S) hydrates much more slowly and provides long-term strength gain over months. Tricalcium aluminate (C3A) causes initial flash set if unretarded by gypsum and contributes primarily to early heat of hydration rather than structural strength.
2A concrete mix is prepared with 35 kg of water and 70 kg of cement. What is the water-cement ratio of the mix, and what will be the primary consequence if the water content is subsequently increased to 45.5 kg without changing the cement quantity?
A.Water-cement ratio is 0.50; compressive strength will decrease significantly while workability increases.
B.Water-cement ratio is 2.00; compressive strength will increase due to improved hydration.
C.Water-cement ratio is 0.50; compressive strength will increase because workability improves.
D.Water-cement ratio is 0.35; porosity will decrease, leading to higher durability.
Explanation: The water-cement ratio is calculated as mass of water divided by mass of cement: 35 kg / 70 kg = 0.50. Increasing the water to 45.5 kg raises the ratio to 45.5 / 70 = 0.65. According to Abrams' law, an increase in the water-cement ratio increases capillary porosity in the hardened paste, causing a substantial reduction in 28-day compressive strength despite increasing workability.
3In the standard concrete slump cone test for assessing workability on site, what are the standard internal dimensions of the slump cone mould, and how is the concrete placed and compacted?
A.Base diameter 200 mm, top diameter 100 mm, height 300 mm; filled in 3 equal layers, each tamped 25 times with a standard rod.
B.Base diameter 100 mm, top diameter 200 mm, height 300 mm; filled in 4 equal layers, each tamped 15 times.
C.Base diameter 200 mm, top diameter 100 mm, height 200 mm; filled in 2 equal layers, each tamped 50 times.
D.Base diameter 300 mm, top diameter 150 mm, height 450 mm; filled in 3 equal layers and mechanically vibrated.
Explanation: According to standard testing specifications (such as BS EN 12350-2 / SLS standards), the standard slump cone is a frustum of a cone with a bottom diameter of 200 mm, top diameter of 100 mm, and vertical height of 300 mm. Fresh concrete is placed in 3 approximately equal depth layers, with each layer rodded 25 times using a 16 mm diameter round-ended steel tamping rod. Mechanical vibration is prohibited because it would liquefy the mix and distort the slump measurement.
4A sample of dry river sand has an initial loose volume of 0.50 m³. When moisture is introduced, the sand undergoes bulking and its loose volume expands to 0.62 m³. What is the percentage bulking of this sand, and at what moisture content range does fine sand generally exhibit peak bulking?
A.24.0% bulking; peak bulking typically occurs around 4% to 6% moisture content.
B.12.0% bulking; peak bulking typically occurs around 15% to 20% moisture content.
C.19.4% bulking; peak bulking typically occurs around 1% to 2% moisture content.
D.24.0% bulking; peak bulking typically occurs around 10% to 12% moisture content.
Explanation: Percentage bulking is defined as [(V_moist - V_dry) / V_dry] * 100 = [(0.62 - 0.50) / 0.50] * 100 = [0.12 / 0.50] * 100 = 24.0%. Bulking is caused by surface tension forming thin water films around sand particles that push them apart. For fine to medium sand, surface tension forces peak at roughly 4% to 6% moisture content, beyond which further water floods the voids, collapses the menisci, and returns the volume to near dry levels.
5What instrument is officially used to determine the standard consistency, initial setting time, and final setting time of cement paste, and what is the minimum initial setting time specified for Ordinary Portland Cement?
A.Vicat apparatus; initial setting time must not be less than 30 minutes.
B.Le Chatelier mould; initial setting time must not be less than 60 minutes.
C.Slump cone apparatus; initial setting time must not be less than 10 minutes.
D.Vee-Bee consistometer; initial setting time must not be less than 45 minutes.
Explanation: The Vicat apparatus, fitted with a 1 mm square needle, is the standard instrument used to determine the initial and final setting times of cement paste conforming to SLS / BS standards. For Ordinary Portland Cement, the initial setting time must not be less than 30 minutes to allow adequate time for mixing, transport, placing, and compacting before stiffening begins. The final setting time must not exceed 600 minutes (10 hours).
6During concrete pouring on a multi-storey building site, fresh concrete is dropped from an excessive free-fall height of 3.5 metres into a tall column shutter. What defect is most likely to occur in the hardened concrete?
A.Severe segregation, leading to honeycombing and porous aggregate clusters at the base of the column.
B.Accelerated hydration, resulting in an unacceptably rapid flash setting.
C.Excessive chemical shrinkage, producing widespread alkali-silica reaction gel.
D.Loss of fine aggregates due to instantaneous chemical leaching.
Explanation: Dropping concrete from an excessive height (recommended maximum free fall is 1.5 metres) causes severe segregation, where heavy coarse aggregates separate from the mortar matrix due to momentum differences. At the base of the column, this leads to honeycombing—interconnected voids between exposed coarse stones—which drastically compromises compressive strength, structural integrity, and steel corrosion protection.
7In reinforced concrete construction, what is the maximum nominal size of coarse aggregate typically specified for general structural elements like beams and slabs?
A.20 mm
B.50 mm
C.75 mm
D.5 mm
Explanation: A nominal maximum coarse aggregate size of 20 mm is standard for general reinforced concrete beams, slabs, and columns. This ensures that the concrete can flow freely between congested reinforcement bars and into shutter corners without bridging or causing honeycombing. Aggregate sizes above 20 mm are generally reserved for mass unreinforced concrete such as gravity dams or large foundation footings.
8Freshly felled timber contains free water in cell cavities and bound water within cell walls. What term describes the moisture state when all free water has evaporated while the cell walls remain fully saturated, and what happens to timber properties below this point?
A.Fiber Saturation Point (FSP, ~25%–30% moisture); drying below FSP causes shrinkage and increases strength.
B.Equilibrium Moisture Content (EMC, ~12%–15%); drying below EMC causes immediate fungal decay.
C.Green moisture state (~50%–100%); drying below this state causes timber expansion.
D.Oven-dry state (0% moisture); drying below this state destroys cellulose lignin bonds.
Explanation: The Fiber Saturation Point (FSP) occurs at roughly 25% to 30% moisture content in timber, where the cell lumens are empty of free water but the cell walls are still saturated with bound water. As drying continues below the FSP, bound water leaves the cell walls, causing wood cells to contract, which initiates volumetric shrinkage while significantly increasing mechanical properties such as compressive and bending strength.
9A structural mild steel test rod having an initial diameter of 20 mm and gauge length of 200 mm is subjected to a tensile test. Within the proportional elastic limit, an axial tensile load of 31.4 kN produces an elongation of 0.10 mm. What is the modulus of elasticity (Young's modulus, E) of this steel?
A.200 GPa
B.100 GPa
C.250 GPa
D.314 GPa
Explanation: The cross-sectional area of the rod is A = (π/4) * d² = (π/4) * (0.020 m)² = 3.1416 * 10⁻⁴ m² = 314.16 mm². Stress is σ = P / A = (31.4 * 10³ N) / (3.1416 * 10⁻⁴ m²) = 1.00 * 10⁸ N/m² = 100 MPa. Strain is ε = ΔL / L = (0.10 mm) / (200 mm) = 0.0005. Young's modulus E = σ / ε = (100 * 10⁶ Pa) / 0.0005 = 200 * 10⁹ Pa = 200 GPa, which represents the standard elastic modulus of structural steel.
10The distance between two survey stations was measured with a nominal 20.00 m metric chain and recorded as 300.00 m. Subsequent calibration revealed that the chain was 0.05 m too long throughout the survey. What is the true horizontal distance between the stations?
A.300.75 m
B.299.25 m
C.301.50 m
D.298.50 m
Explanation: When a chain is too long, each nominal chain length laid down actually covers more ground than marked; therefore, the measured distance is too short and the correction is positive. True Distance = Measured Distance * (Actual Chain Length / Nominal Chain Length) = 300.00 m * (20.05 m / 20.00 m) = 300.75 m. Alternatively, Correction = L_measured * (e / L_nominal) = 300.00 * (0.05 / 20) = +0.75 m, giving 300.75 m.

About the GCE A/L Engineering Technology Exam

The Sri Lanka General Certificate of Education (Advanced Level) Engineering Technology (Subject Code 65) is the primary technical subject of the Technology stream, introduced in 2013 by the Ministry of Education and the National Institute of Education. Designed to bridge secondary education with higher technical education and professional engineering careers, the subject encompasses four core branches: Civil and Building Construction Technology, Mechanical and Automobile Technology, Electrical and Electronics Technology, and Engineering Drawing and Workshop Practice. The national examination consists of Paper 1 (50 compulsory multiple-choice questions, 2 hours) and Paper 2 (structured essay and design problems, 3 hours). Scores contribute directly to the candidate's Z-score for competitive selection into Bachelor of Engineering Technology (BET) and Bachelor of Technology (BTech) degree programmes in Sri Lankan state universities under the University Grants Commission (UGC). This study bank provides 100 independent practice questions designed for comprehensive preparation across all blueprint topics.

Exam sponsor: Department of Examinations, Sri Lanka (doenets.lk). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Paper 1 comprises 50 compulsory multiple-choice questions (2 hours). Paper 2 consists of structured and essay questions (3 hours) covering civil, mechanical, electrical, and engineering drawing applications.

Time Limit

Paper 1: 2 hours; Paper 2: 3 hours (Total 5 hours)

Passing Score

Grade S or higher

Exam / Certification Fees

Free for school candidates; nominal fee for private candidates

Exam sponsor website

Reported exam pass rate: Approximately 65% to 72% pass rate (Grade S or above) nationally among Technology stream candidates.. This describes exam candidates, not OpenExamPrep users or results from using our resources. Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

25%

Civil and Building Construction Technology

Building materials including cement, aggregates, concrete technology, timber, and structural steel; land surveying methods with chain, optical leveling, and theodolite; shallow and deep foundations; masonry and brickwork bonding; roof trusses and coverings; and domestic plumbing, pipe fittings, and drainage systems.

25%

Mechanical and Automobile Technology

Mechanics of machines, velocity ratio, mechanical advantage, mechanical efficiency, simple mechanisms, and four-bar linkages; power transmission systems using flat belts, V-belts, roller chains, and spur/bevel gear trains; internal combustion engines encompassing 2-stroke and 4-stroke petrol and diesel cycles; fuel injection; cooling and pressurized lubrication systems; and hydraulic drum and disc braking and steering geometry.

25%

Electrical and Electronics Technology

Direct current and alternating current circuit principles; single-phase and three-phase power distribution; electrical safety devices including MCBs, RCCBs, and earthing; step-up and step-down transformers; DC motors, three-phase squirrel-cage induction motors, and stepper motors; semiconductor diodes, full-wave bridge rectifiers, bipolar junction transistors (BJTs), and operational sensors and transducers.

25%

Engineering Drawing and Workshop Practice

First-angle and third-angle orthographic projections, isometric drawing, sectional views, and ISO standard dimensioning; bench hand tools, marking out, and precision metrology (vernier caliper and micrometer); machining operations on the centre lathe, drilling machine, and shaping/milling tools; fusion welding techniques (MMAW shielded metal arc and oxy-acetylene gas), brazing, and soldering; and workshop occupational health and safety (OHS) regulations.

Preparing for the GCE A/L Engineering Technology Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Grade S or higher
  • Assessment: Paper 1 comprises 50 compulsory multiple-choice questions (2 hours). Paper 2 consists of structured and essay questions (3 hours) covering civil, mechanical, electrical, and engineering drawing applications.
  • Time limit: Paper 1: 2 hours; Paper 2: 3 hours (Total 5 hours)
  • Exam / certification fees: Free for school candidates; nominal fee for private candidates Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the structure of the Sri Lanka GCE A/L Engineering Technology examination?

The examination consists of two written components: Paper 1 and Paper 2. Paper 1 contains 50 compulsory multiple-choice questions to be completed in 2 hours, covering all four curriculum sections. Paper 2 contains structured essay questions and design problems administered over 3 hours, requiring detailed technical explanations, computational steps, and schematic sketches.

What degree programmes can students enter after passing GCE A/L Engineering Technology?

Candidates who pass Engineering Technology together with Science for Technology (SFT) and an approved third subject (such as Information and Communication Technology, Geography, Home Economics, or Agriculture) are eligible for admission into Technology faculties at Sri Lankan state universities. They can pursue Bachelor of Engineering Technology (BET Honours) degrees specializing in Civil, Mechanical, Mechatronics, Automotive, or Electrical disciplines.

In which languages is the Engineering Technology examination offered?

The examination is officially conducted in three language media: Sinhala, Tamil, and English. Candidates select their preferred language medium during registration through their school or as private candidates via the Department of Examinations portal (doenets.lk).

Are calculators allowed in GCE A/L Engineering Technology examinations?

Non-programmable scientific calculators are permitted for Paper 2 in accordance with Department of Examinations regulations, but candidates should always verify the specific instructions printed on the admission card and examination paper. Calculators are generally not permitted for Paper 1 (MCQ), requiring manual arithmetic and estimation skills.

How does Engineering Technology differ from General Advanced Level Physics?

While A/L Physics emphasizes theoretical concepts and mathematical derivations, Engineering Technology focuses on applied engineering sciences, technological systems, practical workshop processes, building construction, automotive mechanics, and electrical installations directly relevant to modern industrial practice.