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Key Facts: GCE A/L Bio Systems Technology Exam

50 MCQs

Paper 1 Compulsory Multiple-Choice Questions

Department of Examinations, Sri Lanka

Subject 66

Official Department of Examinations Subject Code

National Institute of Education (NIE) Curriculum Guide

5 Hours

Combined Examination Duration (Paper 1 + Paper 2)

Department of Examinations, Sri Lanka

Grade S+

Minimum Passing Standard for University Admission

University Grants Commission (UGC) Sri Lanka

3 Media

Offered Nationally in Sinhala, Tamil, and English

Ministry of Education, Sri Lanka

Sri Lanka GCE A/L Bio-System Technology (Subject Code 66) is a premier Technology stream examination evaluating agricultural technology, food preservation, environmental engineering, and bioenergy across Paper I (50 MCQs, 2 hours) and Paper II (structured/essay, 3 hours).

Sample GCE A/L Bio Systems Technology Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the GCE A/L Bio Systems Technology exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which greenhouse covering material provides the highest thermal insulation and durability while diffusing incoming solar radiation to prevent leaf scorching in protected horticulture?
A.Multi-wall polycarbonate sheeting
B.Single-layer untreated polyethylene film
C.Standard float horticultural glass
D.Clear polyvinyl chloride (PVC) film
Explanation: Multi-wall polycarbonate panels feature internal air flutes that deliver superior thermal insulation with a low heat transfer coefficient (U-value) and high impact strength. Their internal structure diffuses direct solar radiation uniformly across the crop canopy, preventing localized hotspots and leaf scorch while trapping long-wave infrared radiation during cooler periods.
2In a commercial Nutrient Film Technique (NFT) hydroponic installation, what is the primary characteristic of the nutrient solution flow within the gullies?
A.Deep, static water submerging the root system completely throughout the crop cycle
B.A very shallow, continuous recirculating stream of nutrient solution over the root mat
C.High-pressure intermittent aerosol misting applied directly to suspended roots
D.Subsurface capillary absorption through a solid coarse gravel substrate
Explanation: In Nutrient Film Technique (NFT) systems, a very shallow stream or 'film' of nutrient solution continuously recirculates along the bottom of sloping gullies. This shallow depth ensures that the upper portions of the root mat remain exposed to air for vital oxygen exchange while the lower roots absorb water and dissolved mineral ions.
3When managing the nutrient solution for hydroponic tomato production, which response is most appropriate if the solution pH rises above 7.0 and electrical conductivity (EC) exceeds target levels?
A.Add potassium hydroxide (KOH) and supplement with concentrated macronutrient stock solutions
B.Aerate the tank vigorously without adding any chemicals or adjusting the solution volume
C.Add dilute nitric acid (HNO3) or phosphoric acid (H3PO4) and dilute the solution with fresh water
D.Introduce calcium carbonate lime to precipitate excess dissolved ions from the reservoir
Explanation: A pH above 7.0 impairs the bioavailability of micronutrients such as iron, manganese, and zinc by causing precipitation. Adding dilute nitric acid or phosphoric acid neutralizes hydroxide ions and lowers the pH into the optimal 5.5 to 6.5 range, while adding fresh water reduces the elevated electrical conductivity (EC) caused by cumulative salt concentration.
4In an aeroponic cultivation chamber, what is the ideal droplet size range produced by ultrasonic or high-pressure atomizers to maximize root absorption while preventing root asphyxiation?
A.1 to 5 micrometers
B.200 to 400 micrometers
C.500 to 800 micrometers
D.30 to 80 micrometers
Explanation: In aeroponic systems, mist droplet size in the range of 30 to 80 micrometers is considered optimal for root nutrient uptake and aeration. Droplets smaller than 30 micrometers tend to drift as fog without wetting roots efficiently, whereas droplets larger than 100 micrometers produce excessive runoff and can limit oxygen diffusion into root hairs.
5Which component is installed at the control head of a micro-irrigation system primarily to protect emitters from physical blockage by mineral particles and organic debris?
A.Screen or disc filtration unit
B.Pressure relief safety valve
C.Venturi fertilizer injector
D.Air release and vacuum breaker valve
Explanation: Screen and disc filtration units are essential primary components of a micro-irrigation control head. They remove physical impurities, suspended sand particles, and organic matter from irrigation water before it enters distribution laterals, thereby preventing clogging of narrow emitter flow paths.
6Why are pressure-compensating (PC) drip emitters preferred over non-compensating emitters when laying laterals across undulating or sloping agricultural terrain?
A.They completely eliminate the need for primary filtration at the pump station
B.They maintain a uniform discharge rate despite substantial variations in operating water pressure along the lateral
C.They allow water to flow freely at zero inlet pressure via natural gravity alone
D.They expand their orifices to dispense solid granulated fertilizers directly into root zones
Explanation: Pressure-compensating (PC) emitters contain an elastomeric diaphragm that flexes in response to water pressure changes. On undulating slopes where elevation differentials induce significant hydrostatic pressure variations, PC emitters automatically adjust their internal orifice to deliver a constant, uniform discharge rate across all plants.
7A drip irrigation lateral of 50 meters length has emitters spaced 0.5 meters apart. If each emitter has an average rated discharge of 2.0 liters per hour, what is the total water volume delivered by this single lateral during a 3-hour irrigation cycle?
A.100 liters
B.300 liters
C.600 liters
D.1,200 liters
Explanation: The number of emitters along the 50-meter lateral is 50 m / 0.5 m = 100 emitters. The total hourly discharge is 100 emitters * 2.0 L/h = 200 L/h. Over a 3-hour irrigation cycle, the total volume delivered is 200 L/h * 3 h = 600 liters.
8Which parameter is evaluated using a grid of catch cans to determine Christiansen's Uniformity Coefficient (CU) in a sprinkler irrigation system?
A.The chemical purity and electrical conductivity of pumped groundwater
B.The friction head loss per unit length of polyvinyl chloride mainlines
C.The tensile strength of overhead aluminum sprinkler risers
D.The spatial depth uniformity of water distribution across the target field area
Explanation: Christiansen's Uniformity Coefficient (CU) measures how evenly water is applied across an irrigated field by overhead sprinklers. Catch cans placed at regular grid intervals collect applied water, and the standard formula calculates the deviation of individual catch depths from the mean application depth to determine distribution uniformity.
9In tropical protected agriculture structures, what is the main aerodynamic advantage of installing continuous ridge vents combined with expansive side wall netting in naturally ventilated poly-tunnels?
A.It harnesses the thermal buoyancy (chimney effect) and wind forces to exhaust hot buoyant air without electrical fans
B.It completely prevents the entry of microscopic fungal spores and viral particles without pesticide use
C.It increases relative humidity inside the structure to near-saturation during peak afternoon hours
D.It blocks photosynthetic active radiation (PAR) to slow vegetative plant transpiration rates
Explanation: Natural ventilation in tropical greenhouses relies on the thermal buoyancy effect (stack or chimney effect) combined with natural wind pressure. As solar radiation heats interior air, it expands, becomes less dense, and escapes through high ridge vents, drawing in cooler ambient air through lower side wall openings to achieve rapid air exchanges without electrical energy.
10Why is aged and washed coir dust (cocopeat) widely utilized as a root substrate in soilless culture across Sri Lanka?
A.It releases high concentrations of native nitrogen and phosphorus, eliminating the need for fertilizer
B.It possesses high water holding capacity and air-filled porosity while maintaining structural stability
C.It has a naturally alkaline pH above 8.5 that neutralizes acidic irrigation waters
D.It permanently suppresses all soil-borne pathogens through chemical sterilization
Explanation: Cocopeat (coir dust) is an outstanding growing medium because its spongy cellular structure retains high volumes of plant-available water while maintaining ample air-filled porosity (10–15%) for root respiration. When properly washed and aged to remove excess sodium and potassium salts, it provides an inert, physically stable substrate with ideal drainage and buffering capacity.

About the GCE A/L Bio Systems Technology Exam

Sri Lanka General Certificate of Education (Advanced Level) Bio-System Technology (Subject Code 66) is a flagship specialized discipline in the national Technology stream introduced by the Ministry of Education. The subject bridges biological sciences and engineering technologies to prepare students for modern agro-technological enterprises, food processing industries, environmental conservation agencies, and higher university education in Bachelor of Bio Systems Technology (BBST) degree programmes. The curriculum encompasses protected horticulture, soilless cultivation, micro-irrigation engineering, plant tissue culture micropropagation, food preservation physics and chemistry, food safety management systems, municipal and agro-industrial wastewater treatment, solid waste recycling and composting, post-harvest physiological management, and renewable bioenergy conversion. Candidates sit for two comprehensive papers: Paper I (50 compulsory MCQs, 2 hours) and Paper II (structured and essay questions, 3 hours). This independent practice question bank provides 100 high-yield questions spanning all core syllabus domains to reinforce exam readiness.

Exam sponsor: Department of Examinations, Sri Lanka (doenets.lk). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

The examination comprises two formal papers. Paper I consists of 50 compulsory multiple-choice questions administered over 2 hours, testing broad conceptual comprehension, scientific deductions, and calculations. Paper II consists of structured essay and extended essay questions administered over 3 hours, assessing deep analytical reasoning, diagrammatic synthesis, and engineering problem-solving across biosystem topics.

Time Limit

Paper 1: 2 hours; Paper 2: 3 hours (Total 5 hours)

Passing Score

Grade S or higher

Exam / Certification Fees

Free for school candidates; nominal fee for private candidates

Exam sponsor website

Reported exam pass rate: Approximately 65% to 70% of candidates achieve a passing grade (Grade S or higher) nationally.. This describes exam candidates, not OpenExamPrep users or results from using our resources. Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

25%

Agricultural and Horticultural Technology

Protected cultivation systems (greenhouses, net houses, microclimate regulation), hydroponic and aeroponic setups, micro-irrigation hydraulics (drip and sprinkler systems, fertigation), precision farming tools, plant tissue culture stages and media formulation, and crop protection spraying machinery.

25%

Food Processing and Preservation

Microbiological, chemical, and enzymatic deterioration mechanisms, thermal processing fundamentals (pasteurization, commercial sterilization, D and z lethality values, canning protocol), dehydration thermodynamics, chilling and freezing cryogenics, industrial fermentation, food packaging technologies, and quality systems (HACCP, ISO 22000, SLS).

25%

Environmental Technology and Water Management

Physical, chemical, and biological water quality indices (BOD, COD, DO, turbidity, pH, coliform indicators), multi-barrier wastewater purification processes (primary clarification, secondary activated sludge and trickling filters, tertiary polishing and disinfection), solid waste valorization (composting, sanitary landfill design, recycling), and gaseous emission control technologies.

25%

Post-Harvest Technology and Bioenergy

Harvest maturity determination, post-harvest handling and packinghouse operations, respiratory climacteric dynamics, modified atmosphere storage and grain silo management, anaerobic digestion biogas generation (phases, parameters, digester configurations), biomass energy conversion (pyrolysis, gasification), liquid biofuels, and agro-industrial waste valorization.

Preparing for the GCE A/L Bio Systems Technology Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Grade S or higher
  • Assessment: The examination comprises two formal papers. Paper I consists of 50 compulsory multiple-choice questions administered over 2 hours, testing broad conceptual comprehension, scientific deductions, and calculations. Paper II consists of structured essay and extended essay questions administered over 3 hours, assessing deep analytical reasoning, diagrammatic synthesis, and engineering problem-solving across biosystem topics.
  • Time limit: Paper 1: 2 hours; Paper 2: 3 hours (Total 5 hours)
  • Exam / certification fees: Free for school candidates; nominal fee for private candidates Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the examination format of GCE A/L Bio-System Technology (Subject Code 66)?

The examination consists of two written papers: Paper I features 50 compulsory multiple-choice questions to be completed in 2 hours, carrying 50 marks. Paper II lasts 3 hours and contains structured essay questions (Part A) and extended essay questions (Part B) covering design, calculation, process flow, and biological principles.

Who is eligible to take Bio-System Technology at GCE Advanced Level?

Students enrolled in the Technology stream in Sri Lankan senior secondary schools who take Bio-System Technology alongside Science for Technology and an approved third elective (such as Information & Communication Technology, Agriculture, Geography, or Economics) are eligible, as well as qualified private candidates registered via doenets.lk.

Which university degree pathways are accessible with GCE A/L Bio-System Technology?

Successful candidates qualifying with competitive Z-scores can gain admission into Bachelor of Bio Systems Technology (BBST / B.Tech Honours) programmes offered across state university Technology faculties in Sri Lanka, as well as specialized programmes in food technology, agricultural technology, and environmental technology.

In which languages is the Bio-System Technology examination conducted?

The examination is administered nationwide in three official media: Sinhala, Tamil, and English. Candidates complete both Paper I and Paper II in their registered language of instruction.

How should students balance calculations and descriptive biology during exam preparation?

Candidates must master both conceptual biological mechanisms (spoilage pathways, tissue culture differentiation, microbial digestion) and technical calculations, including irrigation discharge rates, moisture content loss, BOD reduction efficiency, and thermal lethality D-values.