All Practice Exams

Free Practice Questions for AAK ATPL (Kazakhstan)

Exam-style questions and explanations by OpenExamPrep.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card
108+ Questions
100% Free

Loading practice questions...

Same family resources

Explore More Kazakhstan Civil Aviation Pilot Licensing (AAK / ААК)

Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.

Sample AAK ATPL (Kazakhstan) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the AAK ATPL (Kazakhstan) exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 108+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under the Qualification Requirements approved by Order No. 362 of the Republic of Kazakhstan, what is the minimum age for the issuance of an Airline Transport Pilot License (ATPL)?
A.18 years of age
B.20 years of age
C.21 years of age
D.23 years of age
Explanation: Paragraph 29 of the Qualification Requirements approved by Order No. 362 sets the minimum age for an airline transport pilot of aeroplanes, helicopters and powered-lift aircraft at 21 years, together with a valid Class 1 medical certificate and the theoretical knowledge required of a commercial pilot under paragraph 18.
2What is the minimum total flight time experience required for an applicant seeking full issuance of an Airline Transport Pilot License in the Republic of Kazakhstan?
A.1,000 flight hours
B.1,200 flight hours
C.1,500 flight hours
D.2,000 flight hours
Explanation: Paragraph 30 of the Qualification Requirements approved by Order No. 362 requires an ATPL(A) candidate to have flown not less than 1,500 hours as a pilot of aeroplanes. No more than 100 of those hours may come from a certified flight simulation training device, and no more than 25 of that simulator time may be on a procedures trainer or a basic instrument flight trainer.
3Within the 1,500 hours required for an ATPL(A) in Kazakhstan, the command experience requirement can be met either by 250 hours as pilot-in-command or by an alternative expressed entirely as pilot-in-command under supervision (PICUS). How many hours of PICUS satisfy that alternative?
A.200 hours as PICUS
B.350 hours as PICUS
C.500 hours as PICUS
D.750 hours as PICUS
Explanation: Paragraph 30 of the Qualification Requirements approved by Order No. 362 offers three routes to the command experience element: 500 hours as pilot-in-command under supervision; or 250 hours as pilot-in-command; or at least 70 hours as pilot-in-command with the remaining time made up as pilot-in-command under supervision. Note that Kazakhstan does not impose the separate 500-hour multi-pilot operations requirement found in some European rules, so candidates studying from EASA material should check the national figures.
4Which set of aeronautical experience requirements correctly reflects the cross-country, night and instrument time prerequisites for an ATPL(A) under the Qualification Requirements approved by Order No. 362?
A.100 hours cross-country, 50 hours night, and 40 hours instrument
B.200 hours cross-country (including 100 hours PIC/PICUS), 100 hours night flight, and 75 hours instrument time
C.300 hours cross-country, 150 hours night flight, and 100 hours instrument time
D.500 hours cross-country, 200 hours night flight, and 150 hours instrument time
Explanation: Paragraph 30 of the Qualification Requirements approved by Order No. 362 requires an ATPL(A) candidate to log at least 200 hours of cross-country flying, of which at least 100 hours must be as pilot-in-command under supervision; 100 hours of night flying as pilot-in-command or co-pilot; and 75 hours of instrument flying, of which no more than 30 hours may be ground instrument time.
5Under Article 1 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation (Chicago Convention, 1944), what foundational principle of international air law is recognized by all contracting states?
A.Complete freedom of commercial air navigation through all global air routes without prior authorization
B.Every State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory
C.Airspace above 10,000 meters MSL is international domain governed exclusively by the United Nations
D.Military aircraft have automatic overflight rights across all civilian transit corridors
Explanation: Article 1 of the Chicago Convention affirms that 'the contracting States recognize that every State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory.' Consequently, no scheduled international air service may be operated over or into the territory of a contracting State without prior authorization.
6Under the Tokyo Convention (1963) on Offences and Certain Other Acts Committed on Board Aircraft, what legal authority is granted to the aircraft commander regarding unruly or dangerous passengers in international flight?
A.The commander may conduct a formal judicial trial and levy criminal fines while airborne
B.The commander may impose reasonable restraint measures upon any person aboard who has committed, or is about to commit, an act jeopardizing safety or good order
C.The commander must immediately alter course and land at the nearest military air base
D.The commander may only request diplomatic intervention from the state of registry upon arrival
Explanation: The Tokyo Convention empowers the pilot-in-command to take reasonable preventive measures, including physical restraint and requiring assistance from other crew members or passengers, against any individual who jeopardizes aircraft safety, passengers, property, or good order and discipline on board.
7Under ICAO Annex 19 and Kazakhstan civil aviation safety regulations, what are the four core pillars of a certified commercial operator's Safety Management System (SMS)?
A.Safety Policy & Objectives, Safety Risk Management, Safety Assurance, and Safety Promotion
B.Flight Data Monitoring, Crew Scheduling, Maintenance Engineering, and Financial Auditing
C.Quality Control, Ramp Inspections, Security Screening, and Simulator Training
D.Accident Investigation, Emergency Response, Pilot Licensing, and ATC Coordination
Explanation: ICAO Annex 19 establishes that a certified operator's Safety Management System (SMS) framework consists of four foundational components (pillars): 1. Safety Policy and Objectives; 2. Safety Risk Management (hazard identification and risk mitigation); 3. Safety Assurance (monitoring and internal evaluation); and 4. Safety Promotion (training and communication).
8Under the Kazakhstan Rules approved by Order No. 250, under what conditions and by what maximum duration may the Pilot-in-Command extend the flight duty period at the commander's discretion?
A.At any time before departure by up to 4 hours without consulting other crew members
B.Only in unforeseen operational circumstances after departure or during reporting, after consulting all crew members, by up to a maximum of 2 hours (or up to 3 hours with an augmented crew)
C.Only if authorized in writing by the operator's Chief Executive Officer before takeoff
D.Indefinitely, provided the aircraft is equipped with Class 1 crew rest facilities
Explanation: Paragraphs 46 and 47 of the Rules approved by Order No. 250 allow the commander, in unforeseen operational circumstances and with the agreement of all crew members, to increase the maximum flight duty period by not more than 2 hours, or not more than 3 hours where an augmented flight crew is carried. Paragraph 51 requires the operator to notify the authorised civil aviation organisation, with a copy of the commander's report and the reasons, within 28 calendar days whenever the extension exceeds one hour.
9Under Order No. 517 of the Republic of Kazakhstan, for how long do successfully passed theoretical knowledge examinations remain valid for the issuance of an Airline Transport Pilot Licence, and from what date does that period run?
A.18 months from the date of the first examination
B.24 months from the date of the last examination
C.36 months from the date of successfully completing all theoretical examinations
D.7 years from the date of the last instrument rating entry made in the licence
Explanation: Paragraph 56 of the Rules approved by Order No. 517 gives the ATPL theory certificate a validity of 7 years, and crucially the clock does not start when the examinations are passed. For an aeroplane pilot it runs from the date of the last instrument rating entry made in the licence; for a helicopter pilot it runs from the last aircraft type rating entry. Keeping the instrument rating current therefore keeps the ATPL theory credit alive, which is why airline first officers can build the 1,500 hours over several years without re-sitting the theory papers.
10What is the legal purpose of the Operations Specifications (OpSpecs) issued by the Aviation Administration of Kazakhstan as part of an Air Operator Certificate (AOC)?
A.To specify passenger ticket pricing formulas and commercial tariffs
B.To define the specific operational authorizations, conditions, and limitations under which the operator is permitted to conduct commercial transport flights (e.g. CAT II/III, ETOPS, RVSM, Dangerous Goods)
C.To provide an inventory of all ground service vehicles owned by the airline
D.To record individual flight crew salaries and union seniority lists
Explanation: Operations Specifications (OpSpecs) are statutory attachments to the Air Operator Certificate (AOC) issued by AAK. They delineate specific authorizations granted to the airline, including authorized aircraft types, geographic operating areas, low visibility approach categories (CAT II/III), ETOPS/EDTO diversion times, RVSM, and carriage of dangerous goods.

About the AAK ATPL (Kazakhstan) Exam

The Kazakhstan Airline Transport Pilot License (ATPL) Theoretical Knowledge Examination is the highest level of civil aviation pilot certification administered by the Aviation Administration of Kazakhstan (AAK). Regulated under the Law of the Republic of Kazakhstan 'On the Use of Airspace and Aviation Activities' (No. 339-IV) and Ministerial Orders No. 517 and No. 750, this theoretical examination battery validates a pilot's advanced competency to act as Pilot-in-Command of multi-crew transport category aircraft in commercial air transport. Unlike the PPL and CPL examinations, the ATPL(A) structure is published in full. Appendix 20 to Order No. 517 fixes 14 separate papers with a defined question count and time for each: Air Law (44 questions, 1 hour), Aircraft General Knowledge — Airframe, Systems and Power Plant (80, 2 hours), Aircraft General Knowledge — Instrumentation (60, 1 hour 30), Mass and Balance (25, 1 hour), Performance — Aeroplanes (35, 1 hour), Flight Planning and Monitoring (43, 2 hours), Human Performance (48, 1 hour), Meteorology (84, 2 hours), General Navigation (60, 2 hours), Radio Navigation (66, 1 hour 30), Operational Procedures (45, 1 hour 15), Principles of Flight — Aeroplanes (44, 1 hour), VFR Communication (24, 30 minutes) and IFR Communication (24, 30 minutes). That is 682 questions and 18 hours 15 minutes in total, and each paper must be passed separately at 75%. A representative of AAK is present when ATPL papers are sat. The comprehensive syllabus covers the following subject groupings: Air Law and International Conventions (Chicago Convention, ICAO Annexes, AOC requirements, and Flight Time Limitations), Aircraft General Knowledge (damage-tolerant structures, high-bypass turbofans, FADEC, AC electrical generation, and fly-by-wire architectures), Instrumentation and Avionics (FMS LNAV/VNAV algorithms, EFIS displays, EICAS/ECAM warning logic, and TCAS II 7.1), Mass & Balance and Class A Aircraft Performance (balanced field takeoff, V1 decision speed, second-segment climb gradient minimums, driftdown profiles, and factored landing distances), Flight Planning and Monitoring (commercial fuel policies, ETOPS/EDTO critical fuel scenarios, and Cost Index optimization), Human Performance (high-altitude hypoxia, rapid decompression, fatigue mitigation, and Threat and Error Management), Meteorology (jet streams, clear air turbulence, and high-level SIGWX interpretation), Navigation and PBN (RNAV, RNP AR, GNSS augmentations, and Inertial Reference Systems), Operational Procedures (All-Weather Operations, Category II/III autoland, Low Visibility Procedures, and RVSM), and Principles of Flight (transonic aerodynamics, Mcrit, shock wave formation, mach tuck, swept-wing stall, and coffin corner boundaries). Candidates must score at least 75% on every individual paper, and all 14 papers must be completed within 18 months of the first exam (Order No. 517, paragraphs 27 and 54). A failed paper may be re-sat no earlier than 10 working days later, with a maximum of 3 consecutive attempts before further AUC training is required. The resulting theory certificate is valid for 7 years from the date of the last instrument rating entry in the licence, which is why an airline first officer can accumulate the 1,500 hours over several years without re-sitting the papers. Following theory credit, a candidate who meets the flight experience requirements of paragraph 30 of Order No. 362 passes a skill test with a designated examiner, conducted on a flight simulation training device or an aircraft. AAK does not publish the language or languages in which the theoretical examination is delivered, and it does not release its examination items. The practice questions on this page are independent study material written in English by OpenExamPrep to cover the same subject areas and the ICAO standards that Order No. 517 paragraph 5 makes an assessment basis. They are not an official translation, they do not reproduce AAK's question bank, and they cannot replace approved ground school or the skill test.

Exam sponsor: Aviation Administration of Kazakhstan (AAK / АО «Авиационная администрация Казахстана»). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Computer-based theoretical examination with automatic scoring, conducted under audio and video recording with a representative of AAK present, across the 14 ATPL(A) papers fixed in Appendix 20 to Order No. 517: Air Law (1:00, 44 questions); Aircraft General Knowledge — Airframe, Systems and Power Plant (2:00, 80); Aircraft General Knowledge — Instrumentation (1:30, 60); Mass and Balance (1:00, 25); Performance — Aeroplanes (1:00, 35); Flight Planning and Monitoring (2:00, 43); Human Performance (1:00, 48); Meteorology (2:00, 84); General Navigation (2:00, 60); Radio Navigation (1:30, 66); Operational Procedures (1:15, 45); Principles of Flight — Aeroplanes (1:00, 44); VFR Communication (0:30, 24); and IFR Communication (0:30, 24). A flight skills check with a designated examiner follows, conducted on a flight simulation training device or an aircraft. Permitted aids in the theory examination include a ruler, charts, a protractor or plotter, dividers, a mechanical navigation computer and a programmable calculator reset to factory settings; translator software is prohibited.

Time Limit

30 minutes to 2 hours per paper, 18 hours 15 minutes in total across all 14 papers

Passing Score

At least 75% correct answers in each discipline; all 14 disciplines passed within 18 months of the first test attempt

Exam / Certification Fees

10 MRP (43,250 KZT at the 2026 index of 4,325 KZT) for issuing the airline transport pilot licence, and 3 MRP for entering or extending a rating, under Order No. 167 of 17 March 2023. No separate state charge is published for the theoretical examination. Training fees at certified aviation centres are additional.

Exam sponsor website

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

12%

Air Law and Regulations

International aviation conventions (Chicago, Tokyo, Montreal), ICAO Annexes 1, 2, 6, 8, 9, 11, 13, 14, 17, 18, Kazakhstan civil aviation legislation, Air Operator Certificate (AOC) regulations, Flight Time Limitations (FTL), and Safety Management Systems (SMS Annex 19).

14%

Aircraft General Knowledge

Transport category fail-safe and damage-tolerant structures, high-bypass turbofan engines, FADEC architecture, bleed air distribution, pneumatic/hydraulic generation, AC electrical systems (IDG, APU, bus ties, RAT), and fly-by-wire flight control architectures.

10%

Instrumentation and Avionics

Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), Flight Management System (FMS) LNAV/VNAV algorithms, Primary Flight Display (PFD) and Navigation Display (ND), EICAS/ECAM alert logic, TCAS II version 7.1, and Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning Systems (EGPWS).

15%

Mass & Balance and Performance

Class A transport category aircraft performance, balanced field length, V1/VR/V2 speeds, 1st to 4th takeoff segments, second-segment climb gradient minimums (2.4% for twins), obstacle clearance, driftdown procedures, and factored landing distance.

12%

Flight Planning and Monitoring

ICAO ATS flight plan item coding, commercial fuel policy (taxi, trip, contingency, alternate, final reserve), ETOPS/EDTO critical fuel scenarios (engine failure plus depressurization), Cost Index (CI) calculation, and oceanic/remote navigation monitoring.

8%

Human Performance and Limitations

High-altitude aviation physiology, Time of Useful Consciousness (TUC), explosive decompression pathophysiology, circadian disruption and jet lag management, sleep architecture, Threat and Error Management (TEM), and automation bias/mode confusion.

12%

Meteorology

High-altitude meteorology, tropopause height variations, jet streams and Clear Air Turbulence (CAT), mesoscale convective complexes (MCC), mountain wave dynamics, volcanic ash advisories (VAAC), space weather impacts, and high-level SIGWX chart decoding.

11%

General and Radio Navigation

Performance-Based Navigation (PBN: RNAV 1/2, RNP 4, RNP 1, RNP APCH), GNSS constellation architecture, augmentation systems (SBAS, GBAS), Inertial Reference Systems (Schuler tuning, ring laser gyros, drift rates), Point of Equal Time (PET), and Point of Safe Return (PSR).

10%

Operational Procedures and Regulations

All-Weather Operations (AWOPS), Low Visibility Procedures (LVP), Category II/III ILS operations, fail-passive and fail-operational autoland systems, wake turbulence categorization (Super, Heavy, Medium, Light), ETOPS/EDTO approval criteria, and RVSM airspace requirements.

10%

Principles of Flight

High-speed aerodynamics, critical Mach number (Mcrit), shock wave formation and transonic drag rise, mach tuck, shock stall, swept-wing design (spanwise flow, wing fences, vortex generators), buffet onset boundaries (coffin corner), and Dutch roll dynamics.

Preparing for the AAK ATPL (Kazakhstan) Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: At least 75% correct answers in each discipline; all 14 disciplines passed within 18 months of the first test attempt
  • Assessment: Computer-based theoretical examination with automatic scoring, conducted under audio and video recording with a representative of AAK present, across the 14 ATPL(A) papers fixed in Appendix 20 to Order No. 517: Air Law (1:00, 44 questions); Aircraft General Knowledge — Airframe, Systems and Power Plant (2:00, 80); Aircraft General Knowledge — Instrumentation (1:30, 60); Mass and Balance (1:00, 25); Performance — Aeroplanes (1:00, 35); Flight Planning and Monitoring (2:00, 43); Human Performance (1:00, 48); Meteorology (2:00, 84); General Navigation (2:00, 60); Radio Navigation (1:30, 66); Operational Procedures (1:15, 45); Principles of Flight — Aeroplanes (1:00, 44); VFR Communication (0:30, 24); and IFR Communication (0:30, 24). A flight skills check with a designated examiner follows, conducted on a flight simulation training device or an aircraft. Permitted aids in the theory examination include a ruler, charts, a protractor or plotter, dividers, a mechanical navigation computer and a programmable calculator reset to factory settings; translator software is prohibited.
  • Time limit: 30 minutes to 2 hours per paper, 18 hours 15 minutes in total across all 14 papers
  • Exam / certification fees: 10 MRP (43,250 KZT at the 2026 index of 4,325 KZT) for issuing the airline transport pilot licence, and 3 MRP for entering or extending a rating, under Order No. 167 of 17 March 2023. No separate state charge is published for the theoretical examination. Training fees at certified aviation centres are additional. Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 108 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

AAK ATPL (Kazakhstan): Suggested Study Strategy

1Master Class A transport category takeoff segment requirements: 1st segment extends from 35 ft to gear retraction (positive climb); 2nd segment extends from gear up to minimum 400 ft at V2 (minimum 2.4% gradient for twins, 2.7% for tri-jets, 3.0% for quads); 3rd segment is horizontal acceleration to flap retraction; 4th segment is final climb at Venr to minimum 1,500 ft (1.2% for twins).
2Understand balanced field takeoff: A balanced field occurs when the Accelerate-Stop Distance Required (ASDR) equals the Takeoff Distance Required (TODR). Increasing V1 increases ASDR while decreasing TODR.
3Drill high-altitude aerodynamics formulas: Mach Number M = TAS / Local Speed of Sound (LSS), where LSS = 38.94 × sqrt(Temperature in Kelvin). Recognize that as temperature drops with altitude, speed of sound decreases.
4Understand shock stall and Mach tuck: As airflow over the upper wing surface exceeds Mach 1.0, a normal shock wave forms, causing flow separation behind the shock. The aft movement of the center of pressure combined with downwash loss over the horizontal stabilizer creates a strong nose-down pitching moment (Mach tuck).
5Know ETOPS critical fuel reserves: Account for anti-icing fuel penalties (+5% to +10%), 5% contingency fuel allowance, and fuel for holding at 1,500 ft for 15 minutes at the diversion alternate.
6Learn RVSM altitude keeping limits: In Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace (FL290 to FL410), vertical separation is 1,000 ft. Total vertical error must not exceed ±200 ft, and primary altimeters must agree within ±75 ft.
7Memorize TUC thresholds at high altitude: FL250 is 3-5 minutes; FL300 is 1-2 minutes; FL350 is 30-60 seconds; FL400 is 15-20 seconds; FL450 is 9-12 seconds.
8Review Category II and Category III ILS minimums: Cat II requires DH not less than 100 ft and RVR not less than 300 m. Cat IIIA requires DH < 100 ft (or no DH) and RVR >= 175 m. Cat IIIB requires DH < 50 ft (or no DH) and RVR 50-175 m. Cat IIIC allows zero DH and zero RVR.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the passing grade for the Kazakhstan AAK ATPL theoretical examination?

At least 75% on each of the 14 papers (Order No. 517, paragraphs 27 and 54). The papers are passed individually, so a shortfall in one does not affect passes already banked, provided all 14 are completed within 18 months of the first exam.

What total flight hours are required for the issuance of a full ATPL in Kazakhstan?

At least 1,500 hours as a pilot of aeroplanes, of which no more than 100 hours may be simulator time. Within that total: 500 hours as pilot-in-command under supervision, or 250 hours as pilot-in-command, or at least 70 hours as pilot-in-command with the balance as pilot-in-command under supervision; 200 hours cross-country including 100 hours as pilot-in-command under supervision; 75 hours instrument of which no more than 30 hours may be ground instrument time; and 100 hours night (Order No. 362, paragraph 30). Kazakhstan does not impose a separate 500-hour multi-pilot operations requirement.

What is the second segment climb gradient requirement for a twin-engine transport category aircraft?

Under Class A transport category airworthiness regulations (ICAO Annex 8 and Kazakhstan air regulations), a twin-engine transport aircraft must achieve a gross climb gradient of not less than 2.4% during the second takeoff segment with one engine inoperative at V2 with landing gear retracted and takeoff flaps set.

What is 'coffin corner' in high-speed transport aerodynamics?

Coffin corner (buffet boundary intersection) is the aerodynamic flight regime at high altitude where the aircraft's low-speed stall speed (Vs) converges with its high-speed critical Mach buffet onset speed (Mmo), leaving an extremely narrow margin between low-speed stall and high-speed shock stall.

What is the Time of Useful Consciousness (TUC) following a rapid decompression at FL350?

At Flight Level 350 (approx. 35,000 feet), the Time of Useful Consciousness following a rapid decompression is typically 30 to 60 seconds (or even less with physical activity), necessitating immediate donning of oxygen masks.

What is the difference between fail-passive and fail-operational autoland systems?

In a fail-passive autoland system, failure of a sub-system results in no significant out-of-trim condition or flight path deviation, but the pilot must immediately assume manual control. In a fail-operational system, after any single failure, the autopilot continues to control the aircraft to complete the flare and rollout automatically.

What are the ETOPS critical fuel scenario components?

The ETOPS critical fuel scenario evaluates the fuel required to fly from the most critical point of the route to an adequate en-route alternate aerodrome under the worst contingency: simultaneous engine failure and cabin depressurization, followed by a descent to 10,000 ft (or minimum safe altitude), holding for 15 minutes, and conducting an instrument approach and landing.

How does Cost Index (CI) affect FMS flight profiles?

Cost Index is the ratio of aircraft operating cost per hour to fuel cost per pound or kilogram (CI = Cost_time / Cost_fuel). A Cost Index of zero maximizes fuel conservation (minimum trip fuel / maximum range speed), while a high Cost Index commands higher cruising Mach and faster descent speeds to minimize flight time.