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100+ Free NEET-SS Practice Questions

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An 8-month-old has first episode wheeze, cough, rhinorrhea, mild hypoxemia, and diffuse crackles during RSV season. Feeding is adequate and there is no apnea. What is the mainstay of treatment?

A
B
C
D
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Practice Questions
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: NEET-SS Exam

15 groups

Official NEET-SS 2025 question paper groups

NEET-SS 2025 Information Bulletin, NBEMS

150 MCQs

Questions per group paper in latest detailed bulletin

NEET-SS 2025 Information Bulletin, NBEMS

150 minutes

Total exam time in latest detailed bulletin

NEET-SS 2025 Information Bulletin, NBEMS

50th percentile

Group-wise qualifying criterion in latest detailed bulletin

NEET-SS 2025 Information Bulletin, NBEMS

Rs. 3,500 per group

Latest detailed official fee; 2026 detailed fee not yet published in consulted sources

NEET-SS 2025 Information Bulletin, NBEMS

11-12 Dec 2026

Tentative NEET-SS 2026 dates in NBEMS 29 Apr 2026 notice

NBEMS updated tentative schedule notice

100

Free original practice questions in this bank

OpenExamPrep

NEET-SS is a group-based NBEMS CBT for DM/MCh/DrNB super-specialty admission. Latest detailed bulletin: 150 MCQs in 150 minutes, 4 marks correct, 1 mark deducted wrong, and qualification at the 50th percentile within each group-specific merit list. NEET-SS 2026 final logistics should be verified with NBEMS when the detailed bulletin is released.

Sample NEET-SS Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your NEET-SS exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old with an inferior STEMI becomes hypotensive after sublingual nitroglycerin. JVP is elevated, lungs are clear, and ECG shows ST elevation in V4R. What is the best immediate hemodynamic step?
A.Start high-dose furosemide
B.Give another nitrate infusion
C.Give cautious isotonic fluid boluses and avoid further nitrates
D.Start beta-blocker loading immediately
Explanation: Inferior STEMI with right ventricular infarction is preload dependent: elevated JVP, clear lungs, hypotension, and right-sided ST elevation are classic. Initial support is cautious crystalloid to restore RV filling while avoiding nitrates and diuretics that reduce preload.
2A 24-year-old with type 1 diabetes has vomiting, Kussmaul breathing, glucose 520 mg/dL, pH 7.12, bicarbonate 9 mEq/L, and serum ketones. Potassium is 3.1 mEq/L. What should be corrected before starting insulin infusion?
A.Serum sodium
B.Serum potassium
C.Serum phosphate
D.Serum chloride
Explanation: Insulin drives potassium into cells and can cause dangerous hypokalemia. In DKA, if potassium is low, potassium replacement is started first and insulin is delayed until potassium is safely above the severe hypokalemia range.
3A patient with tinnitus, vomiting, fever, and tachypnea has pH 7.49, PaCO2 22 mm Hg, and bicarbonate 17 mEq/L. Which acid-base disorder best explains this pattern?
A.Simple respiratory alkalosis from anxiety
B.Simple metabolic acidosis with full respiratory compensation
C.Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis
D.Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
Explanation: Salicylate toxicity classically causes early respiratory alkalosis from medullary stimulation plus an anion-gap metabolic acidosis from organic acids. The low PaCO2 with low bicarbonate and alkalemic pH cannot be explained by a single primary disorder.
4A 62-year-old with nephrotic-range proteinuria develops sudden flank pain and gross hematuria. Serum creatinine rises, and CT venography shows a filling defect in the left renal vein. Which underlying glomerular disease is classically associated?
A.IgA nephropathy
B.Membranous nephropathy
C.Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
D.Thin basement membrane disease
Explanation: Membranous nephropathy is a classic adult cause of nephrotic syndrome and is strongly associated with renal vein thrombosis because nephrotic syndrome creates a hypercoagulable state. Sudden flank pain, hematuria, and renal dysfunction are typical clues.
5A woman with fluctuating ptosis, diplopia, and proximal weakness worsens late in the day. Symptoms improve after rest. Which test is most specific for the common autoimmune target in this disorder?
A.Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody
B.Anti-Jo-1 antibody
C.Anti-GQ1b antibody
D.Anti-myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein antibody
Explanation: The pattern is myasthenia gravis, most commonly due to antibodies against the postsynaptic acetylcholine receptor. Fluctuating ocular and bulbar weakness that worsens with use is the exam clue.
6A hospitalized patient with small-cell lung cancer has sodium 118 mEq/L, serum osmolality 255 mOsm/kg, urine osmolality 520 mOsm/kg, urine sodium 60 mEq/L, and a generalized seizure. What is the best immediate therapy?
A.Fluid restriction alone
B.Oral salt tablets only
C.3% hypertonic saline bolus with close sodium monitoring
D.Desmopressin without sodium replacement
Explanation: This is severe symptomatic hypotonic hyponatremia, likely SIADH from small-cell lung cancer. Seizure or severe neurologic symptoms require hypertonic saline to raise sodium promptly but carefully, avoiding overcorrection.
7A patient with rheumatoid arthritis develops symmetrical MCP and PIP swelling, morning stiffness over 1 hour, and positive anti-CCP antibodies. Which extra-articular lung manifestation is most associated with RA?
A.Interstitial lung disease
B.Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
C.Kartagener syndrome
D.Primary spontaneous pneumothorax from apical blebs
Explanation: Rheumatoid arthritis can involve the lungs with interstitial lung disease, pleural disease, rheumatoid nodules, and airway disease. Anti-CCP positivity and long-standing seropositive disease increase concern for systemic manifestations.
8A woman has central obesity, proximal myopathy, diabetes, easy bruising, and purple striae. Low-dose dexamethasone does not suppress cortisol; high-dose dexamethasone suppresses it by more than 50%. ACTH is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Adrenal cortisol-producing adenoma
B.Ectopic ACTH syndrome from small-cell carcinoma
C.Pituitary ACTH-producing adenoma
D.Factitious glucocorticoid use
Explanation: ACTH-dependent Cushing syndrome with suppression on high-dose dexamethasone suggests pituitary Cushing disease. Ectopic ACTH typically does not suppress, whereas adrenal and exogenous steroid causes have low ACTH.
9A cirrhotic patient presents with hematemesis, hypotension, and suspected esophageal variceal bleeding. After airway assessment and resuscitation, which drug should be started early while arranging urgent endoscopy?
A.Octreotide or terlipressin
B.Warfarin
C.Oral propranolol only
D.High-dose aspirin
Explanation: Acute variceal hemorrhage is treated with vasoactive therapy such as octreotide or terlipressin, antibiotics, resuscitation, and urgent endoscopic band ligation. Nonselective beta-blockers are for secondary prophylaxis after stabilization, not sole acute therapy.
10A 68-year-old has resting tremor, bradykinesia, rigidity, and a shuffling gait. Which medication remains the most effective symptomatic treatment for motor features?
A.Levodopa with carbidopa
B.Haloperidol
C.Phenytoin
D.Pyridostigmine
Explanation: Levodopa combined with carbidopa is the most effective symptomatic treatment for Parkinson disease motor symptoms. Carbidopa reduces peripheral conversion of levodopa, improving CNS availability and reducing peripheral adverse effects.

About the NEET-SS Exam

NEET-SS is India's single eligibility-cum-ranking examination for admission to most DM, MCh and post-MD/MS/DNB DrNB Super Specialty courses, except institutions excluded in the official NBEMS overview. The latest detailed official bulletin consulted is NEET-SS 2025, which uses 15 question paper groups and 150 time-bound MCQs per group. NBEMS has published only a tentative NEET-SS 2026 schedule as of the consulted 29 April 2026 notice; candidates should verify the final 2026 bulletin on natboard.edu.in before applying.

Assessment

Latest detailed NBEMS bulletin: group-based computer-based exam. Each question paper has Sections A, B and C, each with 50 MCQs and 50 minutes. Thirteen groups draw from PG exit-level primary feeder broad specialty content; Critical Care Medicine and Medical Oncology are separate super-specialty-topic groups.

Time Limit

150 minutes total in latest detailed bulletin; 50 minutes per time-bound section.

Passing Score

50th percentile or more in each question paper group-specific merit list in latest detailed bulletin.

Exam Fee

Current detailed 2026 fee not published in consulted official sources. Latest detailed NEET-SS 2025 bulletin lists Rs. 3,500 per group, excluding payment gateway charges. (National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS); common counseling conducted by MCC/DGHS as specified by NBEMS.)

NEET-SS Exam Content Outline

not-published

Medical Group

PG exit-level General Medicine general/basic and system/subspecialty components for medicine-linked DM/DrNB seats.

not-published

Surgical Group

PG exit-level General Surgery general/basic and subspecialty components for MCh/DrNB surgical seats including urology, neurosurgery, surgical oncology, vascular and HPB surgery.

not-published

Paediatric Group

PG exit-level Paediatrics content supporting neonatal, paediatric cardiology, nephrology, hepatology, neurology, oncology, gastroenterology and critical-care pathways.

not-published

Obstetrics and Gynaecology Group

OBGYN feeder content for gynaecologic oncology and reproductive medicine/surgery.

not-published

Anaesthesia Group

Anesthesiology feeder content for cardiac, neuro, transplant, paediatric and neonatal anaesthesia pathways.

not-published

Radiodiagnosis Group

Radiology feeder content for neuroradiology and interventional radiology admission groups.

not-published

Critical Care Medicine Group

Separate question paper group with questions from Critical Care Medicine topics, per NBEMS bulletin wording.

not-published

Medical Oncology Group

Separate question paper group with questions from Medical Oncology topics, per NBEMS bulletin wording.

not-published

Other Official Groups

Orthopaedics, Respiratory Medicine, Microbiology, Pathology, Psychiatry, Pharmacology and ENT groups complete the official 15-group model.

How to Pass the NEET-SS Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 50th percentile or more in each question paper group-specific merit list in latest detailed bulletin.
  • Assessment: Latest detailed NBEMS bulletin: group-based computer-based exam. Each question paper has Sections A, B and C, each with 50 MCQs and 50 minutes. Thirteen groups draw from PG exit-level primary feeder broad specialty content; Critical Care Medicine and Medical Oncology are separate super-specialty-topic groups.
  • Time limit: 150 minutes total in latest detailed bulletin; 50 minutes per time-bound section.
  • Exam fee: Current detailed 2026 fee not published in consulted official sources. Latest detailed NEET-SS 2025 bulletin lists Rs. 3,500 per group, excluding payment gateway charges.

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

NEET-SS Study Tips from Top Performers

1Start from the NBEMS group you are eligible to write; choice of group determines the DM/MCh/DrNB seats you can exercise during counseling.
2Revise the PG exit-level curriculum of the primary feeder specialty rather than only super-specialty facts, because NBEMS states most groups test the primary feeder broad specialty at PG exit level.
3Practice section pacing: the latest detailed bulletin uses three 50-question sections of 50 minutes each, and previous sections cannot be reviewed after time expires.
4Use negative marking deliberately: one mark is deducted for an incorrect answer, so eliminate options before guessing.
5For cross-feeder courses, check the official annexures carefully; eligibility for a super-specialty seat depends on both your feeder qualification and the group paper you qualify.
6Do not study from alleged leaked papers or dumps. Use official bulletins for structure and standard textbooks/guidelines for medical facts.
7For Critical Care Medicine and Medical Oncology, prepare dedicated super-specialty topics because NBEMS lists these as separate topic-based groups.
8Recheck NBEMS and MCC sites before applying because final dates, fee, counseling steps and seat matrix can change by session.

Frequently Asked Questions

Does NEET-SS exist as an official NBEMS exam?

Yes. NBEMS describes NEET-SS as the eligibility-cum-ranking examination prescribed as the single entrance examination for admission to various DM/MCh and DrNB Super Specialty courses, subject to exclusions listed on the official exam page.

How many questions are on NEET-SS?

The latest detailed NEET-SS 2025 bulletin states that each question paper group has 150 questions, divided into three time-bound sections of 50 questions each.

How long is the NEET-SS exam?

The latest detailed bulletin gives 150 minutes total, with 50 minutes allotted to each of Sections A, B and C. Candidates cannot return to a previous section after its time is over.

What is the NEET-SS marking scheme?

The latest detailed bulletin lists 4 marks for each correct response, deduction of 1 mark for each incorrect response, and zero marks for unattempted questions.

What is the qualifying score?

NBEMS states that candidates securing the 50th percentile or more in each question paper group-specific merit list are declared qualified.

Are official topic percentage weights published?

The consulted NBEMS sources publish the group-paper and feeder-specialty model, but do not publish granular topic percentage weights for each clinical topic. This practice set is therefore distributed across official groups and feeder breadth rather than invented percentages.

Is NEET-SS 2026 final information available?

NBEMS published an updated tentative schedule on 29 April 2026 listing NEET-SS 2026 on 11-12 December 2026 and a prior-entry qualification cutoff of 31 January 2027. The notice says exact dates and details will be in the Information Bulletin when notified, so candidates should verify the final bulletin.