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Key Facts: NEET-SS Exam
15 groups
Official NEET-SS 2025 question paper groups
NEET-SS 2025 Information Bulletin, NBEMS
150 MCQs
Questions per group paper in latest detailed bulletin
NEET-SS 2025 Information Bulletin, NBEMS
150 minutes
Total exam time in latest detailed bulletin
NEET-SS 2025 Information Bulletin, NBEMS
50th percentile
Group-wise qualifying criterion in latest detailed bulletin
NEET-SS 2025 Information Bulletin, NBEMS
Rs. 3,500 per group
Latest detailed official fee; 2026 detailed fee not yet published in consulted sources
NEET-SS 2025 Information Bulletin, NBEMS
11-12 Dec 2026
Tentative NEET-SS 2026 dates in NBEMS 29 Apr 2026 notice
NBEMS updated tentative schedule notice
100
Free original practice questions in this bank
OpenExamPrep
NEET-SS is a group-based NBEMS CBT for DM/MCh/DrNB super-specialty admission. Latest detailed bulletin: 150 MCQs in 150 minutes, 4 marks correct, 1 mark deducted wrong, and qualification at the 50th percentile within each group-specific merit list. NEET-SS 2026 final logistics should be verified with NBEMS when the detailed bulletin is released.
Sample NEET-SS Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to review concepts for the NEET-SS exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1A 58-year-old with an inferior STEMI becomes hypotensive after sublingual nitroglycerin. JVP is elevated, lungs are clear, and ECG shows ST elevation in V4R. What is the best immediate hemodynamic step?
A.Start high-dose furosemide
B.Give another nitrate infusion
C.Give cautious isotonic fluid boluses and avoid further nitrates
D.Start beta-blocker loading immediately
Explanation: Inferior STEMI with right ventricular infarction is preload dependent: elevated JVP, clear lungs, hypotension, and right-sided ST elevation are classic. Initial support is cautious crystalloid to restore RV filling while avoiding nitrates and diuretics that reduce preload.
2A 24-year-old with type 1 diabetes has vomiting, Kussmaul breathing, glucose 520 mg/dL, pH 7.12, bicarbonate 9 mEq/L, and serum ketones. Potassium is 3.1 mEq/L. What should be corrected before starting insulin infusion?
A.Serum sodium
B.Serum potassium
C.Serum phosphate
D.Serum chloride
Explanation: Insulin drives potassium into cells and can cause dangerous hypokalemia. In DKA, if potassium is low, potassium replacement is started first and insulin is delayed until potassium is safely above the severe hypokalemia range.
3A patient with tinnitus, vomiting, fever, and tachypnea has pH 7.49, PaCO2 22 mm Hg, and bicarbonate 17 mEq/L. Which acid-base disorder best explains this pattern?
A.Simple respiratory alkalosis from anxiety
B.Simple metabolic acidosis with full respiratory compensation
C.Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis
D.Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
Explanation: Salicylate toxicity classically causes early respiratory alkalosis from medullary stimulation plus an anion-gap metabolic acidosis from organic acids. The low PaCO2 with low bicarbonate and alkalemic pH cannot be explained by a single primary disorder.
4A 62-year-old with nephrotic-range proteinuria develops sudden flank pain and gross hematuria. Serum creatinine rises, and CT venography shows a filling defect in the left renal vein. Which underlying glomerular disease is classically associated?
A.IgA nephropathy
B.Membranous nephropathy
C.Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
D.Thin basement membrane disease
Explanation: Membranous nephropathy is a classic adult cause of nephrotic syndrome and is strongly associated with renal vein thrombosis because nephrotic syndrome creates a hypercoagulable state. Sudden flank pain, hematuria, and renal dysfunction are typical clues.
5A woman with fluctuating ptosis, diplopia, and proximal weakness worsens late in the day. Symptoms improve after rest. Which test is most specific for the common autoimmune target in this disorder?
A.Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody
B.Anti-Jo-1 antibody
C.Anti-GQ1b antibody
D.Anti-myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein antibody
Explanation: The pattern is myasthenia gravis, most commonly due to antibodies against the postsynaptic acetylcholine receptor. Fluctuating ocular and bulbar weakness that worsens with use is the exam clue.
6A hospitalized patient with small-cell lung cancer has sodium 118 mEq/L, serum osmolality 255 mOsm/kg, urine osmolality 520 mOsm/kg, urine sodium 60 mEq/L, and a generalized seizure. What is the best immediate therapy?
A.Fluid restriction alone
B.Oral salt tablets only
C.3% hypertonic saline bolus with close sodium monitoring
D.Desmopressin without sodium replacement
Explanation: This is severe symptomatic hypotonic hyponatremia, likely SIADH from small-cell lung cancer. Seizure or severe neurologic symptoms require hypertonic saline to raise sodium promptly but carefully, avoiding overcorrection.
7A patient with rheumatoid arthritis develops symmetrical MCP and PIP swelling, morning stiffness over 1 hour, and positive anti-CCP antibodies. Which extra-articular lung manifestation is most associated with RA?
A.Interstitial lung disease
B.Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
C.Kartagener syndrome
D.Primary spontaneous pneumothorax from apical blebs
Explanation: Rheumatoid arthritis can involve the lungs with interstitial lung disease, pleural disease, rheumatoid nodules, and airway disease. Anti-CCP positivity and long-standing seropositive disease increase concern for systemic manifestations.
8A woman has central obesity, proximal myopathy, diabetes, easy bruising, and purple striae. Low-dose dexamethasone does not suppress cortisol; high-dose dexamethasone suppresses it by more than 50%. ACTH is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Adrenal cortisol-producing adenoma
B.Ectopic ACTH syndrome from small-cell carcinoma
C.Pituitary ACTH-producing adenoma
D.Factitious glucocorticoid use
Explanation: ACTH-dependent Cushing syndrome with suppression on high-dose dexamethasone suggests pituitary Cushing disease. Ectopic ACTH typically does not suppress, whereas adrenal and exogenous steroid causes have low ACTH.
9A cirrhotic patient presents with hematemesis, hypotension, and suspected esophageal variceal bleeding. After airway assessment and resuscitation, which drug should be started early while arranging urgent endoscopy?
A.Octreotide or terlipressin
B.Warfarin
C.Oral propranolol only
D.High-dose aspirin
Explanation: Acute variceal hemorrhage is treated with vasoactive therapy such as octreotide or terlipressin, antibiotics, resuscitation, and urgent endoscopic band ligation. Nonselective beta-blockers are for secondary prophylaxis after stabilization, not sole acute therapy.
10A 68-year-old has resting tremor, bradykinesia, rigidity, and a shuffling gait. Which medication remains the most effective symptomatic treatment for motor features?
A.Levodopa with carbidopa
B.Haloperidol
C.Phenytoin
D.Pyridostigmine
Explanation: Levodopa combined with carbidopa is the most effective symptomatic treatment for Parkinson disease motor symptoms. Carbidopa reduces peripheral conversion of levodopa, improving CNS availability and reducing peripheral adverse effects.
About the NEET-SS Practice Questions
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