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100+ Free FET Practice Questions

Pass your NBEMS Fellowship Entrance Test (FET) exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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Key Facts: FET Exam

100 MCQs

Each FET paper has 100 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions

NBEMS FET 2026 Information Bulletin

40 + 60

Part A has 40 feeder-specialty questions; Part B has 60 fellowship questions

NBEMS FET 2026 Information Bulletin

105 minutes

Total FET duration: 45 minutes for Part A and 60 minutes for Part B

NBEMS FET 2026 Information Bulletin

+4 / -1

Four marks for each correct answer and one mark deducted for each wrong answer

NBEMS FET 2026 Information Bulletin

50th percentile

Uniform qualifying cutoff for all FET candidates

NBEMS FET 2026 Information Bulletin

400 marks

Maximum FET score: 160 marks Part A plus 240 marks Part B

NBEMS FET 2026 Information Bulletin

Rs. 4,250

FET 2026 examination fee for Indian candidates (non-refundable)

NBEMS FET 2026 Information Bulletin

100

Free original postgraduate practice questions here

OpenExamPrep

The NBEMS Fellowship Entrance Test (FET) is the computer-based entrance exam for admission to FNB and FNB-PD fellowship programmes in India, conducted by NBEMS. Each fellowship paper has 100 single-best-answer MCQs in two parts: Part A (40 questions, 160 marks, feeder broad/super-specialty) and Part B (60 questions, 240 marks, the fellowship itself), completed in 105 minutes. Marking is +4 for correct and -1 for incorrect answers, and candidates must reach the 50th percentile to qualify. FET 2026 was held on 14 March 2026 with a Rs. 4,250 fee for Indian candidates, and only one specialty may be chosen per cycle. This 100-question bank provides original postgraduate-level multiple-choice practice across the broad feeder disciplines.

Sample FET Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your FET exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old man with crushing central chest pain has an ECG showing ST-segment elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
A.Left anterior descending artery
B.Right coronary artery
C.Left circumflex artery
D.Left main coronary artery
Explanation: ST elevation in the inferior leads II, III and aVF indicates an inferior wall myocardial infarction, which is most commonly caused by occlusion of the right coronary artery in the majority of people with right-dominant circulation.
2Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line investigation to confirm a suspected pulmonary embolism in a haemodynamically stable patient with normal renal function?
A.Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan
B.CT pulmonary angiography
C.D-dimer alone
D.Chest radiograph
Explanation: CT pulmonary angiography is the first-line confirmatory imaging test for pulmonary embolism in stable patients with normal renal function because it directly visualises thrombus in the pulmonary arteries with high sensitivity and specificity.
3A patient with type 2 diabetes presents with a random plasma glucose of 600 mg/dL, profound dehydration, no ketosis and a serum osmolality of 340 mOsm/kg. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Diabetic ketoacidosis
B.Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state
C.Lactic acidosis
D.Euglycaemic ketoacidosis
Explanation: Marked hyperglycaemia with high serum osmolality, severe dehydration and the absence of significant ketosis characterise the hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state, which typically occurs in type 2 diabetes.
4Which antibody is most specific for systemic lupus erythematosus?
A.Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA)
B.Anti-double-stranded DNA antibody
C.Rheumatoid factor
D.Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP)
Explanation: Anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies are highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus and correlate with disease activity, particularly lupus nephritis.
5A 35-year-old woman has fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance and constipation. TSH is elevated and free T4 is low. What is the most likely cause in an iodine-sufficient region?
A.Graves disease
B.Hashimoto thyroiditis
C.Toxic multinodular goitre
D.Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis
Explanation: Hashimoto (chronic autoimmune) thyroiditis is the most common cause of primary hypothyroidism in iodine-sufficient areas, producing a high TSH with low free T4 and typically positive anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies.
6Which finding on arterial blood gas best characterises a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in compensated chronic respiratory failure?
A.Low PaCO2 with high pH
B.High PaCO2 with raised bicarbonate and near-normal pH
C.Low bicarbonate with low pH
D.High PaO2 with low PaCO2
Explanation: Chronic CO2 retention in COPD leads to renal retention of bicarbonate, producing a compensated respiratory acidosis with a high PaCO2, elevated bicarbonate and a pH that returns toward normal.
7A patient with chronic kidney disease has a corrected calcium that is low, a high phosphate and a markedly elevated parathyroid hormone. This pattern is best described as:
A.Primary hyperparathyroidism
B.Secondary hyperparathyroidism
C.Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
D.Hypoparathyroidism
Explanation: In chronic kidney disease, phosphate retention and reduced active vitamin D lower serum calcium, which drives a compensatory rise in parathyroid hormone. Low or normal calcium with high phosphate and high PTH defines secondary hyperparathyroidism.
8Which of the following is the classic ECG finding of hyperkalaemia that appears earliest as potassium rises?
A.Tall, peaked T waves
B.Prominent U waves
C.ST-segment depression
D.Shortened QT interval
Explanation: Tall, peaked (tented) T waves are the earliest ECG manifestation of hyperkalaemia. As potassium continues to rise, the PR interval lengthens, the QRS widens and a sine-wave pattern may develop.
9A young adult presents with episodic palpitations, headache and sweating, with paroxysmal severe hypertension. Plasma metanephrines are markedly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Phaeochromocytoma
B.Primary hyperaldosteronism
C.Renal artery stenosis
D.Essential hypertension
Explanation: The triad of episodic headache, palpitations and sweating with paroxysmal hypertension and elevated plasma or urinary metanephrines is classic for phaeochromocytoma, a catecholamine-secreting tumour.
10Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management for a patient in unstable supraventricular tachycardia with hypotension and altered consciousness?
A.Intravenous adenosine
B.Synchronised DC cardioversion
C.Oral beta-blocker
D.Carotid sinus massage
Explanation: When a tachyarrhythmia causes haemodynamic instability such as hypotension or altered mental status, synchronised direct-current cardioversion is the immediate treatment of choice regardless of the underlying rhythm.

About the FET Exam

The NBEMS Fellowship Entrance Test (FET) is the national-level computer-based entrance examination conducted by the National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS) for admission to Fellow of National Board (FNB) and FNB Post-Doctoral fellowship programmes in India. It is a qualifying-cum-ranking test for doctors who already hold a recognised postgraduate qualification (MD/MS/DNB) and wish to pursue advanced supervised clinical training. Each fellowship course (or clubbed group) has its own question paper of 100 single-best-answer MCQs, divided into Part A (40 questions from the eligible feeder broad/super-specialty) and Part B (60 questions from the concerned fellowship). The test runs for 105 minutes with +4 marks for a correct answer and -1 for an incorrect answer, and candidates must reach the 50th percentile to qualify. Questions are application-based and clinically oriented at fellowship entrance level.

Assessment

100 single-best-answer MCQs in two parts: Part A has 40 questions from eligible feeder broad/super-specialty courses; Part B has 60 questions from the concerned fellowship course or clubbed group.

Time Limit

105 minutes total: 45 minutes for Part A and 60 minutes for Part B, in a single computer-based session.

Passing Score

Qualifying at the 50th percentile, applied uniformly to all candidates. FET is qualifying-cum-ranking; qualifying candidates are ranked for fellowship counselling and seat allotment.

Exam Fee

Rs. 4,250 (non-refundable) for Indian candidates in the FET 2026 cycle; candidates may apply for only one fellowship specialty. (National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS))

FET Exam Content Outline

40%

Part A - Feeder Specialty Knowledge

Official test: 40 MCQs (160 marks) in 45 minutes from the eligible feeder broad/super-specialty for the chosen fellowship. Practice here covers postgraduate-level general medicine, general surgery, paediatrics, obstetrics and gynaecology, anaesthesia and radiology as commonly applicable feeder disciplines.

60%

Part B - Fellowship and Applied Sciences

Official test: 60 MCQs (240 marks) in 60 minutes from the concerned fellowship course, covering clinical practice and basic sciences as applied at entrance level. Practice here covers applied pathology, pharmacology, clinical problem-solving and diagnostic reasoning at the fellowship-entry standard.

Integrated

Clinical Problem-Solving

Both parts emphasise application over recall. Practice here covers interpretation of clinical vignettes, investigation choice and interpretation, drug selection and dosing, and management decisions across the broad postgraduate medical disciplines.

How to Pass the FET Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Qualifying at the 50th percentile, applied uniformly to all candidates. FET is qualifying-cum-ranking; qualifying candidates are ranked for fellowship counselling and seat allotment.
  • Assessment: 100 single-best-answer MCQs in two parts: Part A has 40 questions from eligible feeder broad/super-specialty courses; Part B has 60 questions from the concerned fellowship course or clubbed group.
  • Time limit: 105 minutes total: 45 minutes for Part A and 60 minutes for Part B, in a single computer-based session.
  • Exam fee: Rs. 4,250 (non-refundable) for Indian candidates in the FET 2026 cycle; candidates may apply for only one fellowship specialty.

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

FET Study Tips from Top Performers

1Identify your fellowship's eligible feeder specialty first, because Part A questions come from that broad or super-specialty syllabus rather than the fellowship itself.
2Practise under timed conditions at roughly 67-75 seconds per question so you can finish 100 MCQs within the 105-minute limit.
3Use the negative marking deliberately: with -1 for wrong and 0 for blank, skip items you cannot narrow down rather than guessing blindly.
4Focus Part B revision on high-yield clinical practice and applied basic sciences for your specific fellowship, since 60% of marks come from this part.
5Build clinical problem-solving by working through vignettes that integrate investigation interpretation, drug choice and management rather than isolated factual recall.
6Because NBEMS does not release past papers, use recall-based community papers and standard postgraduate textbooks to understand the question style and difficulty.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are on the NBEMS FET and how is it structured?

Each FET paper has 100 single-best-answer MCQs in two parts: Part A has 40 questions from the eligible feeder broad or super-specialty, and Part B has 60 questions from the concerned fellowship course.

How long is the FET and what is the marking scheme?

The FET lasts 105 minutes (45 minutes for Part A, 60 minutes for Part B). Marking is +4 for each correct answer and -1 for each incorrect answer; unattempted questions score 0.

What is the qualifying criterion for FET?

Candidates must score at or above the 50th percentile, applied uniformly to all candidates. FET is qualifying-cum-ranking, so qualifying candidates are then ranked for counselling and seat allotment.

Who is eligible to appear for FET?

Doctors holding a recognised postgraduate qualification (MD/MS/DNB or equivalent) in an eligible feeder broad-specialty or super-specialty for the chosen fellowship may apply. Eligibility per fellowship is defined in the NBEMS Information Bulletin.

Is FET conducted online or on paper?

FET is a computer-based test (CBT) conducted in a single session at designated centres. FET 2026 was held on 14 March 2026.

Are these official NBEMS FET questions?

No. These are original OpenExamPrep practice questions modelled on the feeder-specialty knowledge tested in FET. NBEMS does not publicly release its FET question papers.