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100+ Free NEET-MDS Practice Questions

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The most important etiologic factor in early childhood caries is:

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Key Facts: NEET-MDS Exam

240 MCQs

Official NEET-MDS question count

NBEMS NEET-MDS 2026 Information Bulletin

180 min

Official exam duration

NBEMS NEET-MDS 2026 Information Bulletin

+4 / -1

Marking scheme

NBEMS NEET-MDS 2026 Information Bulletin

308/960

General/EWS 2026 cut-off score

NBEMS NEET-MDS 2026 Result Notice

100

Free original practice questions here

OpenExamPrep

NEET-MDS is a 240-question, 180-minute NBEMS computer-based entrance exam for MDS admissions. The 2026 paper used two time-bound parts, +4/-1 marking, and official BDS-subject distribution from NBEMS/DCI sources.

Sample NEET-MDS Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your NEET-MDS exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A dentist palpates the facial artery while examining mandibular swelling. Where is this artery most commonly felt as it enters the face?
A.At the lower border of the mandible just anterior to the masseter
B.In the retromolar fossa posterior to the third molar
C.At the mental foramen below the mandibular second premolar
D.On the zygomatic arch anterior to the tragus
Explanation: The facial artery winds around the inferior border of the mandible just anterior to the masseter, where it can be compressed against bone. This landmark is useful during facial bleeding and examination of submandibular-region swelling.
2Which nerve carries the postganglionic parasympathetic secretomotor fibers from the otic ganglion to the parotid gland?
A.Buccal nerve
B.Auriculotemporal nerve
C.Chorda tympani nerve
D.Greater petrosal nerve
Explanation: Preganglionic fibers from the glossopharyngeal nerve reach the otic ganglion through the lesser petrosal nerve. After synapsing, postganglionic fibers hitchhike with the auriculotemporal nerve to supply the parotid gland.
3The submandibular duct opens into the oral cavity at the:
A.Parotid papilla opposite the maxillary second molar
B.Sublingual caruncle beside the lingual frenulum
C.Pterygomandibular raphe near the tonsillar pillar
D.Retromolar pad behind the mandibular third molar
Explanation: Wharton's duct from the submandibular gland opens at the sublingual caruncle on either side of the lingual frenulum. This explains why submandibular sialoliths may produce swelling or pain in the floor of the mouth.
4Which muscle is pierced by the parotid duct before the duct opens into the vestibule?
A.Masseter
B.Buccinator
C.Medial pterygoid
D.Orbicularis oris
Explanation: The parotid duct crosses the masseter, turns medially, pierces the buccal fat pad and buccinator, then opens opposite the maxillary second molar. Piercing buccinator helps create a valve-like course during cheek contraction.
5During spread of infection from a mandibular molar, involvement of the submandibular space rather than the sublingual space is most likely when the root apex lies:
A.Above the mylohyoid line
B.Below the mylohyoid line
C.Within the mandibular canal
D.Anterior to the mental foramen
Explanation: The mylohyoid muscle separates the sublingual space above from the submandibular space below. Mandibular molar apices below the mylohyoid line tend to drain into the submandibular space, a key concept in odontogenic infection spread.
6Which salivary component is the major buffer against acid challenge after carbohydrate intake?
A.Bicarbonate
B.Amylase
C.Lysozyme
D.Mucin
Explanation: Bicarbonate is the main salivary buffer and increases with stimulated salivary flow. It helps neutralize plaque acids and supports remineralization by raising oral pH after sugar exposure.
7A rightward shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is produced by:
A.Decreased carbon dioxide tension
B.Decreased 2,3-BPG in red cells
C.Increased temperature
D.Increased blood pH
Explanation: Increased temperature, increased CO2, increased hydrogen ion concentration, and increased 2,3-BPG shift the curve to the right. A right shift lowers hemoglobin affinity and promotes oxygen unloading in active tissues.
8Which vitamin is required for gamma-carboxylation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X?
A.Vitamin C
B.Vitamin K
C.Vitamin B12
D.Vitamin D
Explanation: Vitamin K is needed for gamma-carboxylation of glutamate residues in factors II, VII, IX, and X and proteins C and S. Without this modification, these proteins bind calcium poorly and coagulation is impaired.
9In a patient with uncontrolled diabetes, delayed post-extraction healing is mainly related to:
A.Increased collagen cross-linking and improved neutrophil chemotaxis
B.Reduced neutrophil function, microvascular disease, and impaired collagen turnover
C.Excess vitamin C activity in fibroblasts
D.Increased osteoblastic activity at the socket margin
Explanation: Hyperglycemia impairs neutrophil chemotaxis and phagocytosis, damages small vessels, and disrupts collagen metabolism. These changes increase infection risk and delay socket healing after dental surgery.
10The main organic component of dentin matrix is:
A.Type I collagen
B.Keratin
C.Elastin
D.Type IV collagen
Explanation: Dentin organic matrix is dominated by type I collagen, with noncollagenous proteins contributing to mineralization. This collagen-rich structure helps explain dentin toughness compared with enamel.

About the NEET-MDS Exam

NEET-MDS is India's eligibility-cum-ranking examination for admission to Master of Dental Surgery courses. NBEMS conducts the CBT, declares the result, and hands results to counseling authorities; counseling, document verification, and final admission eligibility are handled by the designated counseling/admitting authorities. The official 2026 bulletin specifies a 240-MCQ paper split into Part A and Part B, with the syllabus based on BDS course regulations notified by the Dental Council of India.

Assessment

Part A has 100 questions in 75 minutes; Part B has 140 questions in 105 minutes. Candidates cannot review a part after its allotted time has elapsed.

Time Limit

180 minutes total (75 minutes for Part A plus 105 minutes for Part B)

Passing Score

2026 cut-off scores: General/EWS 308/960 at 50th percentile; General PwBD 289/960 at 45th percentile; SC/ST/OBC including PwBD 271/960 at 40th percentile

Exam Fee

INR 3,500 for General/OBC/EWS; INR 2,500 for SC/ST/PWD, excluding payment gateway charges (National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS))

NEET-MDS Exam Content Outline

14 questions

General Anatomy including Embryology and Histology

Official Part A subject covering head and neck anatomy, embryology, histology, neurovascular anatomy, fascial spaces, and clinically relevant oral-region landmarks.

14 questions

General Human Physiology and Biochemistry

Official Part A subject covering blood, respiration, endocrine, nutrition, metabolism, acid-base balance, saliva, and physiologic principles used in dental care.

14 questions

Dental Anatomy, Embryology and Oral Histology

Official Part A subject covering tooth morphology, eruption, enamel, dentin, cementum, pulp, oral mucosa, and odontogenesis.

14 questions

General Pathology and Microbiology

Official Part A subject covering inflammation, immunity, healing, necrosis, infection, sterilization, bacterial identification, and systemic disease mechanisms.

14 questions

General and Dental Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Official Part A subject covering local anesthetics, vasoconstrictors, analgesics, antimicrobials, drug interactions, adverse effects, and therapeutics in dentistry.

15 questions

General Medicine

Official Part A subject covering medical risk assessment, diabetes, cardiovascular disease, respiratory disease, anemia, endocrine disease, and emergencies relevant to dental treatment.

15 questions

General Surgery

Official Part A subject covering surgical principles, shock, wound healing, infection, hemostasis, suture selection, and perioperative management.

14 questions

Dental Materials

Official Part B subject covering restorative, impression, gypsum, luting, composite, ceramic, adhesive, and prosthetic material properties and manipulation.

14 questions

Oral Pathology and Oral Microbiology

Official Part B subject covering oral potentially malignant disorders, cysts, tumors, vesiculobullous disease, oral infections, salivary pathology, and diagnostic histopathology.

14 questions

Oral Medicine and Radiology

Official Part B subject covering oral diagnosis, radiographic projection and interpretation, radiation protection, mucosal disease, salivary disease, and CBCT indications.

14 questions

Pedodontics and Preventive Dentistry

Official Part B subject covering child behavior guidance, primary teeth, pulp therapy, space maintenance, trauma, caries risk, fluoride, and preventive care.

14 questions

Orthodontics and Dentofacial Orthopedics

Official Part B subject covering growth and development, malocclusion, cephalometrics, biomechanics, anchorage, oral habits, mixed dentition, and interceptive treatment.

14 questions

Periodontology

Official Part B subject covering periodontal diagnosis, biofilm, indices, clinical attachment loss, furcation, nonsurgical therapy, surgery, and regeneration.

14 questions

Prosthodontics and Crown and Bridge

Official Part B subject covering complete dentures, RPD classification and design, fixed prosthodontics, occlusion, vertical dimension, articulators, and impression procedures.

14 questions

Conservative Dentistry and Endodontics

Official Part B subject covering caries management, cavity design, adhesive dentistry, pulpal diagnosis, access preparation, irrigants, working length, obturation, and post-endodontic restoration.

14 questions

Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery

Official Part B subject covering exodontia, local anesthesia, impactions, odontogenic infections, complications, hemostasis, trauma, and emergency surgical priorities.

14 questions

Public Health Dentistry

Official Part B subject covering epidemiology, indices, screening tests, biostatistics, water fluoridation, community prevention, dental health education, and biomedical waste.

How to Pass the NEET-MDS Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 2026 cut-off scores: General/EWS 308/960 at 50th percentile; General PwBD 289/960 at 45th percentile; SC/ST/OBC including PwBD 271/960 at 40th percentile
  • Assessment: Part A has 100 questions in 75 minutes; Part B has 140 questions in 105 minutes. Candidates cannot review a part after its allotted time has elapsed.
  • Time limit: 180 minutes total (75 minutes for Part A plus 105 minutes for Part B)
  • Exam fee: INR 3,500 for General/OBC/EWS; INR 2,500 for SC/ST/PWD, excluding payment gateway charges

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

NEET-MDS Study Tips from Top Performers

1Use the NBEMS subject distribution as your checklist: do not over-study only clinical dental subjects because Part A still contributes 100 of 240 questions.
2Practice timed blocks that mirror the official structure: 100 questions in 75 minutes and 140 questions in 105 minutes, with no return to the previous part.
3Keep a BDS-subject error log by official subject name so weak areas such as dental materials, oral radiology, and general surgery are visible instead of hidden inside mixed mocks.
4For negative marking, guess only when elimination is meaningful; one wrong answer costs 1 mark while an unattempted question costs 0.
5Revise oral pathology histology, radiographic appearances, endodontic diagnosis, periodontal measurements, RPD classifications, and pediatric pulp therapy because these are high-yield fact-and-application topics.
6Use official NBEMS and DCI documents for pattern and syllabus checks; avoid treating unofficial question dumps as authoritative or copying recalled questions.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the official NEET-MDS 2026 exam pattern?

NBEMS specifies 240 multiple-choice questions in a computer-based test. Part A has 100 questions with 75 minutes, and Part B has 140 questions with 105 minutes. Candidates cannot move to the next part early and cannot review a completed part after its time expires.

What is the NEET-MDS 2026 marking scheme?

Each correct response earns 4 marks, each incorrect response deducts 1 mark, and unattempted questions score 0. The maximum score is 960 marks.

Who conducts NEET-MDS and who handles counseling?

NBEMS conducts NEET-MDS, declares the result, and hands the result to the designated counseling authority. The bulletin states that NBEMS has no role in counseling, allotment of MDS seats, document verification, or final admission eligibility.

What syllabus does NEET-MDS follow?

The NBEMS information bulletin lists the 17 Part A and Part B subjects and states that the syllabus is as per the latest BDS course regulations notified by the Dental Council of India with prior approval of the Government of India.

What were the NEET-MDS 2026 qualifying cut-off scores?

The official NBEMS result notice dated June 2, 2026 lists cut-off scores out of 960: 308 for General/EWS at the 50th percentile, 289 for General PwBD at the 45th percentile, and 271 for SC/ST/OBC including PwBD at the 40th percentile.

Is NEET-MDS a license to practice dentistry?

No. NEET-MDS is an eligibility-cum-ranking entrance examination for MDS admissions. Dental registration, internship completion, counseling eligibility, and admission verification are governed by the applicable DCI/NBEMS/counseling authority rules.