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100+ Free FDST-MDS Practice Questions

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: FDST-MDS Exam

2 papers

Paper I (100 questions) and Paper II (150 questions), all single-correct MCQs

DCI Screening Test Regulations 2009 / NBEMS FDST bulletin

250 questions

Total MCQs across the two FDST-MDS theory papers

NBEMS FDST (MDS & PG Diploma) Information Bulletin

300 minutes

Total theory testing time: Paper I 120 min and Paper II 180 min

NBEMS FDST (MDS & PG Diploma) Information Bulletin

50% each paper

Minimum to qualify for the viva-voce; 50% in viva-voce to pass

DCI Screening Test Regulations 2009 (amended Sept 2018)

No negative marking

Each question carries one mark; wrong answers score zero

NBEMS FDST (MDS & PG Diploma) Information Bulletin

Computer-based

Delivered as a CBT in English only at New Delhi for FDST 2026

NBEMS FDST (MDS & PG Diploma) 2026 notice

No attempt limit

There is no restriction on the number of FDST attempts

NBEMS FDST Information Bulletin

100

Free original postgraduate practice questions here

OpenExamPrep

The Foreign Dental Screening Test (MDS & PG Diploma) is the NBEMS computer-based screening exam for foreign-qualified postgraduate dentists seeking registration in India. It has two single-correct MCQ papers with no negative marking: Paper I (100 questions, 120 minutes) on basic and clinical dental sciences and Paper II (150 questions, 180 minutes) in the candidate's chosen MDS specialty, for 250 questions over 300 minutes. A candidate must score 50% in each theory paper to reach the viva-voce, then 50% in the viva-voce to pass, under DCI Screening Test Regulations 2009. There is no limit on attempts, and qualifying does not by itself grant registration. This 100-question bank gives original postgraduate-level practice across all major dental specialties.

Sample FDST-MDS Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your FDST-MDS exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which oral potentially malignant disorder carries the highest reported risk of malignant transformation?
A.Homogeneous leukoplakia
B.Proliferative verrucous leukoplakia
C.Oral lichen planus (reticular)
D.Frictional keratosis
Explanation: Proliferative verrucous leukoplakia (PVL) is a distinct, multifocal, progressive form of leukoplakia with malignant transformation rates frequently reported above 60-70%, far higher than homogeneous leukoplakia. It is resistant to treatment and tends to recur.
2A radiolucent lesion at the apex of a non-vital tooth that fails to resolve and is lined by stratified squamous epithelium with a fibrous wall is most consistent with which diagnosis?
A.Periapical granuloma
B.Radicular cyst
C.Dentigerous cyst
D.Odontogenic keratocyst
Explanation: A radicular (periapical) cyst arises from epithelial rests of Malassez stimulated by pulpal necrosis and is lined by non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium with a fibrous capsule. It is the most common odontogenic cyst and is associated with a non-vital tooth.
3Which histological feature is most characteristic of the odontogenic keratocyst (keratocystic odontogenic tumour)?
A.Ghost cell keratinisation
B.Parakeratinised epithelium with a palisaded, polarised basal cell layer
C.Ameloblast-like cells with stellate reticulum
D.Clear cell nests in a fibrous stroma
Explanation: The odontogenic keratocyst shows a uniform parakeratinised epithelial lining about 6-8 cells thick with a corrugated surface and a characteristic palisaded, hyperchromatic, polarised basal cell layer. Daughter cysts and high recurrence are typical.
4A unilocular pericoronal radiolucency around an impacted mandibular third molar that, on histology, shows ameloblast-like cells palisading around islands with central stellate reticulum is most consistent with:
A.Dentigerous cyst
B.Ameloblastoma
C.Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour
D.Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour
Explanation: Ameloblastoma shows islands or follicles of odontogenic epithelium with peripheral tall columnar cells showing reverse polarity (palisading) and central loosely arranged stellate reticulum-like tissue. It is locally aggressive and often multilocular but can present unicystically around an impacted tooth.
5Direct immunofluorescence showing a linear band of IgG and C3 along the basement membrane zone is most characteristic of:
A.Pemphigus vulgaris
B.Mucous membrane (cicatricial) pemphigoid
C.Oral lichen planus
D.Erythema multiforme
Explanation: Mucous membrane pemphigoid is a subepithelial blistering disease with autoantibodies to basement membrane antigens (e.g., BP180), producing a linear band of IgG and C3 along the basement membrane zone on direct immunofluorescence and a positive Nikolsky sign.
6Intraepithelial clefting with acantholytic Tzanck cells and a 'row of tombstones' basal layer is the hallmark histology of:
A.Pemphigus vulgaris
B.Bullous pemphigoid
C.Lichen planus
D.Linear IgA disease
Explanation: Pemphigus vulgaris results from IgG autoantibodies against desmoglein 3 (and 1), causing loss of cell-to-cell adhesion (acantholysis). This produces a suprabasal intraepithelial split, rounded acantholytic Tzanck cells and basal cells remaining attached like a 'row of tombstones'.
7Which salivary gland tumour is the most common malignant salivary neoplasm and characteristically contains mucous, intermediate and epidermoid cells?
A.Pleomorphic adenoma
B.Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
C.Adenoid cystic carcinoma
D.Warthin tumour
Explanation: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma is the most common malignant salivary gland tumour and is composed of mucous (mucin-producing), intermediate and epidermoid cells. The MAML2 gene rearrangement is frequently associated, and grading guides prognosis.
8A salivary gland malignancy notorious for perineural invasion and a cribriform 'Swiss cheese' histological pattern is:
A.Acinic cell carcinoma
B.Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C.Polymorphous adenocarcinoma
D.Basal cell adenoma
Explanation: Adenoid cystic carcinoma classically shows a cribriform 'Swiss cheese' architecture of basaloid cells around pseudocystic spaces and is well known for perineural invasion, late distant metastasis and a protracted but ultimately poor long-term prognosis.
9Which finding on histopathology of oral submucous fibrosis best explains the progressive trismus seen clinically?
A.Hyperplasia of minor salivary glands
B.Juxtaepithelial hyalinisation and dense collagen deposition in the lamina propria
C.Increased melanin pigmentation
D.Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia
Explanation: Oral submucous fibrosis shows juxtaepithelial hyalinisation, dense fibrosis with thick collagen bundles, epithelial atrophy and reduced vascularity. This collagen deposition stiffens the submucosa and muscles, producing progressive trismus, and the condition is a potentially malignant disorder linked to areca nut.
10Multiple jaw cysts (odontogenic keratocysts), bifid ribs, palmar pits and calcification of the falx cerebri suggest a mutation in which gene?
A.TP53
B.PTCH1
C.RUNX2
D.FGFR3
Explanation: These features describe naevoid basal cell carcinoma (Gorlin) syndrome, caused by mutations in the PTCH1 tumour-suppressor gene of the hedgehog pathway. Multiple OKCs, basal cell carcinomas, bifid ribs, palmar/plantar pits and falx calcification are characteristic.

About the FDST-MDS Exam

The Foreign Dental Screening Test (FDST) for MDS Degree and PG Diploma holders is the screening examination that Indian Nationals and OCIs with postgraduate dental qualifications awarded outside India must pass before they can seek registration to practise as dental specialists in India. It is conducted by the National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS) on behalf of the Dental Council of India, under the DCI Screening Test Regulations 2009. The test is a computer-based examination in English with two papers of single-correct multiple-choice questions: Paper I (100 questions, 120 minutes) covers basic and clinical dental sciences, and Paper II (150 questions, 180 minutes) covers the candidate's chosen MDS specialty. There is no negative marking. Candidates must score at least 50% in each theory paper to qualify for a viva-voce, and then 50% in the viva-voce, to pass the Screening Test. The FDST (MDS & PG Diploma) is distinct from and harder than the undergraduate FDST (BDS).

Assessment

Two single-correct MCQ papers delivered as a computer-based test: Paper I has 100 questions on basic and clinical dental sciences and Paper II has 150 questions in the candidate's chosen MDS specialty. There is no negative marking and each question carries one mark.

Time Limit

Paper I is 120 minutes and Paper II is 180 minutes (300 minutes total), split into time-bound sections that cannot be revisited once the allotted section time ends.

Passing Score

A candidate must score 50% in each theory paper individually to qualify for the viva-voce, then score 50% in the viva-voce to pass the Screening Test, per DCI Screening Test Regulations 2009 (amended up to September 2018).

Exam Fee

FDST is a paid examination; the fee is fixed in the NBEMS FDST (MDS & PG Diploma) Information Bulletin for each cycle and paid online during application. Candidates should confirm the current fee in the latest bulletin. (National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS), New Delhi)

FDST-MDS Exam Content Outline

20%

Oral Pathology and Oral Medicine & Radiology

Potentially malignant disorders, odontogenic and non-odontogenic cysts and tumours, vesiculobullous and mucosal disease, salivary pathology, radiographic interpretation, radiation protection and CBCT indications at postgraduate diagnostic depth.

16%

Periodontology

The 2017 classification of periodontal and peri-implant diseases, microbiology and host response, regenerative and resective surgery, periodontal-systemic links and supportive periodontal therapy.

14%

Prosthodontics and Crown & Bridge

Complete and removable partial dentures, fixed prosthodontics, occlusion, maxillofacial prosthetics, implant prosthodontics and digital workflows.

14%

Conservative Dentistry and Endodontics

Pulp biology, root canal anatomy and instrumentation, irrigation and obturation, adhesive and esthetic restorations, regenerative endodontics and management of endodontic failure.

12%

Orthodontics and Dentofacial Orthopedics

Growth and development, cephalometrics, biomechanics, fixed and removable appliances, anchorage, and orthognathic and interceptive treatment planning.

12%

Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery

Exodontia and impactions, local anesthesia complications, odontogenic infection, trauma and fracture management, TMJ disorders, and benign and malignant lesion surgery.

12%

Pedodontics and Public Health Dentistry

Pediatric behaviour management, pulp therapy, trauma in children, preventive dentistry, fluorides, epidemiology, indices and oral health survey methodology.

How to Pass the FDST-MDS Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: A candidate must score 50% in each theory paper individually to qualify for the viva-voce, then score 50% in the viva-voce to pass the Screening Test, per DCI Screening Test Regulations 2009 (amended up to September 2018).
  • Assessment: Two single-correct MCQ papers delivered as a computer-based test: Paper I has 100 questions on basic and clinical dental sciences and Paper II has 150 questions in the candidate's chosen MDS specialty. There is no negative marking and each question carries one mark.
  • Time limit: Paper I is 120 minutes and Paper II is 180 minutes (300 minutes total), split into time-bound sections that cannot be revisited once the allotted section time ends.
  • Exam fee: FDST is a paid examination; the fee is fixed in the NBEMS FDST (MDS & PG Diploma) Information Bulletin for each cycle and paid online during application. Candidates should confirm the current fee in the latest bulletin.

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

FDST-MDS Study Tips from Top Performers

1Build your plan around the two-paper structure: revise broad basic and clinical sciences for Paper I, then go deep in your registered specialty for the 150-question Paper II.
2Practise within time-bound sections, because the FDST CBT does not let you return to a section once its allotted time has ended.
3Aim comfortably above 50% in each paper in mock tests, since the qualifying standard is 50% in each theory paper separately, not a combined average.
4Use the 2017 periodontal classification, current cyst and tumour classifications and updated trauma and pharmacology guidance, as postgraduate questions favour current standards.
5Because there is no negative marking, attempt every question and make an educated guess on items you are unsure about.
6Take the NBEMS demo test before exam day to get used to the on-screen navigation, the English-only interface and the sectioned timer.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the FDST (MDS & PG Diploma)?

It is the Foreign Dental Screening Test conducted by NBEMS for Indian Nationals and OCIs holding an MDS Degree or PG Diploma dental qualification awarded outside India, taken before they can seek dental specialist registration in India under DCI Screening Test Regulations 2009.

How is the FDST-MDS exam structured?

It is a computer-based test with two single-correct MCQ papers: Paper I has 100 questions in 120 minutes on basic and clinical dental sciences, and Paper II has 150 questions in 180 minutes in the candidate's chosen MDS specialty. There is no negative marking and each question is worth one mark.

What is the passing standard for the FDST-MDS?

A candidate must score at least 50% in each theory paper individually to qualify for the viva-voce, and must then score 50% in the viva-voce to pass the Screening Test, as set out in DCI Screening Test Regulations 2009.

How is FDST-MDS different from FDST-BDS?

FDST (BDS) is for undergraduate foreign dental graduates and tests BDS-level basic and clinical subjects. FDST (MDS & PG Diploma) is for postgraduate holders and includes a 150-question specialty paper at MDS depth, making it more advanced and specialty-focused.

Is there a limit on attempts or negative marking?

There is no restriction on the number of attempts at the FDST, and there is no negative marking in the theory papers; each correct answer earns one mark and wrong or blank answers score zero.

Are these official NBEMS or DCI questions?

No. These are original OpenExamPrep practice questions modelled on the FDST specialty syllabus. NBEMS publishes the official Information Bulletin, blueprint and a demo test separately on its website.