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100+ Free FDST-BDS Practice Questions

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A gram-positive coccus in chains is isolated from a dental abscess and shows alpha hemolysis. Which organism is most likely?

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Key Facts: FDST-BDS Exam

250 MCQs

Theory questions

NBEMS FDST-BDS 2026 Information Bulletin

120 + 180 minutes

Theory time

NBEMS FDST-BDS 2026 Information Bulletin

No negative marking

Scoring rule

NBEMS FDST-BDS 2026 Information Bulletin

50% each paper

Theory qualifying rule

DCI Screening Test Regulations / NBEMS result notice

100

Free practice questions here

OpenExamPrep

FDST-BDS is a qualifying screening test, not an admission ranking exam. Paper I has 100 MCQs over 120 minutes, Paper II has 150 MCQs over 180 minutes, there is no negative marking, and candidates must score 50% in each theory paper and separately in viva-voce.

Sample FDST-BDS Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your FDST-BDS exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which cranial nerve supplies general sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
A.Lingual nerve
B.Glossopharyngeal nerve
C.Hypoglossal nerve
D.Chorda tympani
Explanation: The lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve, carries general sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.
2A patient hyperventilates during anxiety in the dental chair. Which arterial blood gas change is expected first?
A.Increased PaCO2 with respiratory acidosis
B.Decreased PaCO2 with respiratory alkalosis
C.Decreased PaO2 with metabolic acidosis
D.Increased bicarbonate with metabolic alkalosis
Explanation: Hyperventilation increases carbon dioxide elimination, lowering PaCO2 and producing acute respiratory alkalosis.
3Which enzyme converts glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in most extrahepatic tissues?
A.Glucokinase
B.Pyruvate kinase
C.Hexokinase
D.Phosphofructokinase-1
Explanation: Hexokinase phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in most tissues and has a low Km for glucose.
4A gram-positive coccus in chains is isolated from a dental abscess and shows alpha hemolysis. Which organism is most likely?
A.Staphylococcus aureus
B.Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C.Enterococcus faecalis
D.Streptococcus viridans group
Explanation: Viridans streptococci are alpha-hemolytic gram-positive cocci in chains and are common oral flora involved in dental caries and abscesses.
5Which inflammatory cell is most characteristic of acute suppurative inflammation in a periapical abscess?
A.Neutrophil
B.Eosinophil
C.Plasma cell
D.Epithelioid macrophage
Explanation: Acute suppurative inflammation is dominated by neutrophils, which form pus in bacterial infections such as periapical abscess.
6A patient receiving warfarin requires extraction. Which laboratory test best reflects the anticoagulant effect of warfarin?
A.Bleeding time
B.Prothrombin time with INR
C.Activated partial thromboplastin time
D.Platelet count
Explanation: Warfarin inhibits vitamin K dependent clotting factors and is monitored by prothrombin time expressed as INR.
7Which artery is the main source of blood supply to the maxillary teeth?
A.Lingual artery
B.Facial artery
C.Posterior superior alveolar artery
D.Superior thyroid artery
Explanation: Branches of the maxillary artery, including posterior superior alveolar and infraorbital branches, supply the maxillary teeth.
8Which immunoglobulin is the major antibody in saliva and mucosal secretions?
A.IgG
B.IgM
C.IgE
D.Secretory IgA
Explanation: Secretory IgA is the dominant immunoglobulin in saliva and protects mucosal surfaces by neutralizing pathogens and toxins.
9A dental patient develops wheeze, hypotension, and urticaria soon after receiving a drug. Which mediator is most responsible for the immediate vasodilation and bronchospasm?
A.Histamine
B.Calcitonin
C.Insulin
D.Erythropoietin
Explanation: Immediate anaphylaxis involves mast cell degranulation with histamine release, causing vasodilation, increased permeability, and bronchospasm.
10Which local anesthetic property most strongly increases the proportion of nonionized drug available to cross the nerve membrane?
A.High plasma protein binding
B.pKa closer to physiologic pH
C.Greater hepatic extraction ratio
D.Longer ester side chain
Explanation: A local anesthetic with pKa closer to physiologic pH has more nonionized base at tissue pH, allowing faster membrane penetration and onset.

About the FDST-BDS Exam

FDST-BDS is India's Foreign Dental Screening Test for eligible Indian citizen, PIO, and OCI candidates with a foreign primary dental qualification who seek registration with a State Dental Council or another DCI-specified purpose. NBEMS conducts the computer-based theory test and declares results, while DCI handles applications, eligibility, and registration-related decisions. The current 2026 bulletin verifies a 250-MCQ theory test split into Paper I and Paper II, followed by a separate viva-voce requirement for theory-qualified candidates.

Assessment

Computer-based English-language screening test with two theory papers. Paper I has two 50-question sections of 60 minutes each; Paper II has three 50-question sections of 60 minutes each. Candidates cannot move ahead before a timed section ends and cannot review a section after its time expires.

Time Limit

Paper I 120 minutes; Paper II 180 minutes; two-hour scheduled break between theory papers

Passing Score

50% in each theory paper individually to qualify for viva-voce, and 50% separately in the viva-voce examination

Exam Fee

DCI Screening Test Regulations list Rs. 50,000 for BDS course screening-test examination fee and Rs. 25,000 per repeat attempt; verify current DCI application instructions. (National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS), with Dental Council of India (DCI) handling applications and eligibility)

FDST-BDS Exam Content Outline

100 MCQs

Paper I - Basic Medical Science

Anatomy 10, Physiology 10, Biochemistry 10, Microbiology 10, Pathology 10, Pharmacology 10, General Medicine 20, and General Surgery 20.

10 MCQs

Dental Anatomy and Histology

Tooth morphology, eruption, enamel, dentin, pulp, cementum, periodontium, oral mucosa, and applied oral histology.

10 MCQs

Dental Materials

Restorative, impression, casting, gypsum, luting, ceramic, composite, amalgam, acrylic, and prosthetic material properties.

60 MCQs total

Oral Diagnosis and Surgery Cluster

Oral Pathology 10, Oral Microbiology 10, Oral Medicine 10, Oral Radiology 10, Oral Surgery 10, and Periodontics 10.

30 MCQs total

Orthodontics, Public Health, and Pedodontics

Orthodontics 10, Community/Public Health Dentistry 10, and Pedodontics and Preventive Dentistry 10.

40 MCQs total

Prosthodontics and Conservative Dentistry

Prosthodontics Crown and Bridge 20 and Conservative Dentistry and Endodontics 20.

50 marks

Viva-voce

Theory-qualified candidates must separately score 50% in the viva-voce examination.

How to Pass the FDST-BDS Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 50% in each theory paper individually to qualify for viva-voce, and 50% separately in the viva-voce examination
  • Assessment: Computer-based English-language screening test with two theory papers. Paper I has two 50-question sections of 60 minutes each; Paper II has three 50-question sections of 60 minutes each. Candidates cannot move ahead before a timed section ends and cannot review a section after its time expires.
  • Time limit: Paper I 120 minutes; Paper II 180 minutes; two-hour scheduled break between theory papers
  • Exam fee: DCI Screening Test Regulations list Rs. 50,000 for BDS course screening-test examination fee and Rs. 25,000 per repeat attempt; verify current DCI application instructions.

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

FDST-BDS Study Tips from Top Performers

1Treat Paper I as clinically applied medical science for dentistry, not as isolated first-year theory.
2Use timed 50-question blocks because each official FDST theory paper is divided into 60-minute sections.
3Do not average Paper I and Paper II performance; each paper has an individual 50% qualifying requirement.
4Spend extra review time on Prosthodontics and Conservative Dentistry/Endodontics because they carry the largest Paper II weights.

Frequently Asked Questions

Who conducts FDST-BDS?

NBEMS conducts the FDST-BDS examination, declares the result, and hands the result to DCI. The 2026 bulletin states that DCI invites applications and determines eligibility.

What is the FDST-BDS theory pattern?

The 2026 FDST-BDS theory test has two English-language CBT papers: Paper I has 100 MCQs in 120 minutes and Paper II has 150 MCQs in 180 minutes.

Is there negative marking in FDST-BDS?

No. The 2026 NBEMS bulletin states that each question carries one mark and there is no negative marking.

What score is required to qualify FDST-BDS?

A candidate must score 50% in each theory paper individually to qualify for viva-voce, and must also score 50% separately in viva-voce.

Does passing FDST-BDS automatically grant dental registration in India?

No. The NBEMS bulletin states that appearance in FDST does not confer automatic rights to provisional or permanent registration with DCI or a State Dental Council.