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100+ Free INI CET Practice Questions

Pass your Institute of National Importance Combined Entrance Test (INI CET) exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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A 40-year-old man with HIV (CD4 count 80 cells/µL) presents with progressive headache, fever, and altered mental status. CSF analysis shows: opening pressure 35 cmH2O, lymphocytic pleocytosis, low glucose, and India ink positive. What is the most appropriate induction therapy?

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: INI CET Exam

200 MCQs

Total questions in MD/MS INI CET (90 for MDS)

AIIMS INI CET Information Bulletin 2026

180 minutes

Total exam time, split into 4 sectionally timed parts of 45 minutes each

AIIMS INI CET Information Bulletin 2026

+1 / -0.33

Marking scheme — +1 for correct, -1/3 mark for wrong

AIIMS INI CET Information Bulletin 2026

INR 4000

Application fee for General/OBC candidates (INR 3200 for SC/ST/EWS)

AIIMS INI CET 2026 notification

16 May 2026

Date of INI CET July 2026 session (January 2026 was held 9 Nov 2025)

AIIMS Exams calendar 2026

INI CET is the AIIMS-conducted PG medical entrance covering 200 MCQs in 180 minutes (4 × 50 questions, sectionally timed) for MD/MS seats at 10 Institutes of National Importance, with +1/-0.33 marking and a January and July sitting each year.

Sample INI CET Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your INI CET exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 55-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents with sudden-onset chest pain radiating to the left arm. ECG shows ST-elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
A.Left anterior descending artery
B.Right coronary artery
C.Left circumflex artery
D.Left main coronary artery
Explanation: ST-elevation in leads II, III, and aVF localises infarction to the inferior wall of the left ventricle. In approximately 80-90% of individuals, the inferior wall is supplied by the right coronary artery (RCA), which gives rise to the posterior descending artery in right-dominant circulation.
2A 32-year-old woman presents with palpitations, weight loss despite increased appetite, and heat intolerance. On examination she has a diffuse goitre with bruit and bilateral exophthalmos. Which of the following antibodies is most specific for the diagnosis?
A.Anti-thyroglobulin antibody
B.Anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibody
C.TSH-receptor antibody (TRAb)
D.Anti-microsomal antibody
Explanation: The clinical picture is classical of Graves disease (diffuse goitre, thyrotoxicosis, ophthalmopathy). TSH-receptor antibodies (TRAb), specifically the stimulating subset (TSI), bind and activate the TSH receptor causing autonomous thyroid hormone overproduction. TRAb has >95% specificity for Graves disease.
3A 65-year-old smoker presents with haemoptysis, weight loss, and a hilar mass on chest X-ray. Bronchoscopic biopsy shows small round blue cells with finely granular nuclei, scant cytoplasm, and crush artefact. Which paraneoplastic syndrome is most characteristic of this tumour?
A.Hypercalcaemia from PTHrP secretion
B.Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)
C.Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
D.Polycythaemia from erythropoietin secretion
Explanation: The histology describes small cell lung carcinoma (SCLC), a neuroendocrine tumour. SCLC most commonly produces SIADH (ectopic ADH/vasopressin) and Cushing syndrome (ectopic ACTH). SIADH presents with euvolaemic hyponatraemia, low serum osmolality, and inappropriately concentrated urine.
4A 28-year-old male presents with bloody diarrhoea, tenesmus, and weight loss for 6 weeks. Colonoscopy reveals continuous inflammation from rectum to splenic flexure with loss of haustration. Biopsy shows crypt abscesses with mucin depletion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Crohn disease
B.Ulcerative colitis
C.Ischaemic colitis
D.Intestinal tuberculosis
Explanation: Continuous inflammation starting at the rectum and extending proximally, with crypt abscesses, mucin (goblet cell) depletion, and loss of haustration are hallmarks of ulcerative colitis. UC always involves the rectum and spreads contiguously without skip lesions.
5A 45-year-old female presents with progressive dyspnoea, malar rash, and Raynaud phenomenon. Pulmonary function tests show restrictive pattern with reduced DLCO. Which antibody is most specific for diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis with rapidly progressive pulmonary fibrosis?
A.Anti-centromere antibody
B.Anti-Scl-70 (anti-topoisomerase I) antibody
C.Anti-Ro/SSA antibody
D.Anti-Jo-1 antibody
Explanation: Anti-Scl-70 (anti-topoisomerase I) is highly specific for diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis and strongly associated with interstitial lung disease/pulmonary fibrosis. It identifies patients at high risk of progressive ILD and renal crisis.
6A 60-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease (eGFR 25 mL/min/1.73 m²) develops bony pain and proximal myopathy. Investigations show calcium 1.95 mmol/L, phosphate 2.4 mmol/L, PTH 850 pg/mL (normal 15-65). What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Primary hyperparathyroidism
B.Secondary hyperparathyroidism
C.Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
D.Vitamin D deficiency
Explanation: In CKD, reduced 1-alpha-hydroxylation of vitamin D and phosphate retention cause hypocalcaemia, which stimulates compensatory PTH secretion. The combination of low calcium, high phosphate, and markedly elevated PTH in the setting of renal failure defines secondary hyperparathyroidism (renal osteodystrophy).
7A 19-year-old male is brought to the ER with fever, neck stiffness, and a non-blanching purpuric rash. Gram stain of CSF shows Gram-negative diplococci. Apart from intravenous antibiotics, what is the most appropriate post-exposure prophylaxis for close contacts?
A.Oral amoxicillin for 7 days
B.Single dose oral ciprofloxacin 500 mg
C.Intramuscular benzathine penicillin
D.Oral doxycycline for 14 days
Explanation: The clinical and microbiological picture is meningococcal meningitis (Neisseria meningitidis). Single-dose oral ciprofloxacin 500 mg is the first-line chemoprophylaxis for adult close contacts per WHO and Indian national guidelines. Rifampicin 600 mg BD for 2 days and ceftriaxone IM are alternatives.
8A 24-year-old female presents with episodic headache, palpitations, and diaphoresis. BP is 200/120 mmHg. Plasma free metanephrines are markedly elevated. Which gene mutation is most commonly associated with bilateral and familial phaeochromocytoma?
A.RET proto-oncogene (MEN 2)
B.VHL gene
C.NF1 gene
D.SDHB gene
Explanation: Phaeochromocytomas are bilateral in approximately 50% of MEN 2 cases, the highest among hereditary syndromes. MEN 2A and 2B result from germline activating mutations in the RET proto-oncogene on chromosome 10q11.2 and are typically associated with medullary thyroid carcinoma.
9A 70-year-old male is on warfarin for atrial fibrillation. He presents with INR of 9.5 and no bleeding. What is the most appropriate management?
A.Continue warfarin at the same dose; recheck INR in 1 week
B.Withhold warfarin and give oral vitamin K 2.5 mg
C.Withhold warfarin and give IV vitamin K 10 mg plus FFP
D.Withhold warfarin and give prothrombin complex concentrate
Explanation: Per ACCP/BSH guidelines: in patients on warfarin with INR > 8 but no clinically significant bleeding, withhold warfarin and give low-dose oral vitamin K (1-5 mg). Monitor INR and restart warfarin at a lower dose once INR is therapeutic.
10A 40-year-old man with HIV (CD4 count 80 cells/µL) presents with progressive headache, fever, and altered mental status. CSF analysis shows: opening pressure 35 cmH2O, lymphocytic pleocytosis, low glucose, and India ink positive. What is the most appropriate induction therapy?
A.Fluconazole monotherapy 400 mg/day
B.Amphotericin B deoxycholate plus flucytosine
C.Liposomal amphotericin B plus flucytosine
D.Voriconazole plus caspofungin
Explanation: India ink positivity in an HIV patient with CD4 < 100 indicates cryptococcal meningitis. The WHO 2022 and IDSA guidelines recommend single high-dose liposomal amphotericin B (10 mg/kg) plus 14 days of flucytosine plus fluconazole as preferred induction. Liposomal formulation has less nephrotoxicity than deoxycholate.

About the INI CET Exam

INI CET is the unified postgraduate medical/dental entrance examination conducted by AIIMS New Delhi for admission to MD/MS/MDS/DM/MCh seats at the Institutes of National Importance: AIIMS New Delhi and the new AIIMS, PGIMER Chandigarh, JIPMER Puducherry, NIMHANS Bengaluru, and SCTIMST Trivandrum. Held twice yearly (January and July sessions), the MD/MS exam consists of 200 MCQs across 4 sectionally timed parts (50 questions in 45 minutes each), with +1 for correct and -1/3 for wrong answers. Seven question formats are permitted, but Single Best Response dominates. INI CET seats are filled separately from NEET PG and are among the most competitive in Indian postgraduate medical training.

Questions

100 scored questions

Time Limit

180 minutes

Passing Score

50th percentile (General); 45th (OBC); 40th (SC/ST/EWS)

Exam Fee

INR 4000 (General/OBC); INR 3200 (SC/ST/EWS) (AIIMS New Delhi)

INI CET Exam Content Outline

30%

Medicine and allied

Internal medicine and subspecialties (cardiology, endocrine, GI, nephrology, ID, rheumatology), paediatrics with immunisation and neonatology, dermatology, psychiatry.

25%

Surgery and allied

General surgery (acute abdomen, HPB, breast, colorectal, urology, vascular, trauma), orthopaedics with oncology, anaesthesia and critical care, radiodiagnosis.

11%

Obstetrics & Gynaecology

Antenatal/intrapartum/postnatal care, hypertensive disorders, antepartum haemorrhage, gynaecologic oncology, infertility and contraception.

20%

Pathology, Pharmacology, Microbiology

Pre-clinical subjects applied to clinical scenarios — drug mechanisms, adverse effects, microbial pathogenesis, histopathologic patterns.

8%

Community Medicine (PSM)

Epidemiology and biostatistics, national health programmes (RNTCP/NTEP, UIP, JSY, NHM), study design, disease surveillance.

6%

Forensic Medicine and Eye/ENT

Toxicology, thanatology, medical jurisprudence under BNS/BNSS, plus ophthalmology and ENT essentials.

How to Pass the INI CET Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 50th percentile (General); 45th (OBC); 40th (SC/ST/EWS)
  • Exam length: 100 questions
  • Time limit: 180 minutes
  • Exam fee: INR 4000 (General/OBC); INR 3200 (SC/ST/EWS)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

INI CET Study Tips from Top Performers

1Treat the 45-minute sectional timer as a hard constraint — practise full-length 200-MCQ mocks under exam conditions to build pacing instincts.
2Master pre-clinical (Pathology, Pharmacology, Microbiology) at a conceptual depth; INI CET disproportionately rewards depth and clinical correlation over rote facts.
3Track guideline updates (BNS replacing IPC in 2024, WHO drug-resistant TB classification, ESC heart failure 2021, MHCA 2017) — recent changes are favoured in INI CET questions.
4For every wrong answer in practice, write a one-line lesson; periodic review of your error log is more efficient than re-reading textbooks.
5Use spaced repetition for high-yield facts (immunisation schedule, cancer staging, antidotes, drug doses) starting at least 6 months before the exam.
6Solve previous-year INI CET (and AIIMS PG before 2020) papers — recurring question themes and direct repeats appear in nearly every session.

Frequently Asked Questions

Who conducts INI CET 2026 and which institutes participate?

AIIMS New Delhi is the lead conducting institute. Participating Institutes of National Importance include AIIMS New Delhi, the six new AIIMS (Bhopal, Bhubaneswar, Jodhpur, Patna, Raipur, Rishikesh), PGIMER Chandigarh, JIPMER Puducherry, NIMHANS Bengaluru, and SCTIMST Trivandrum. New AIIMS at Bibinagar, Bilaspur, Deoghar, etc., are added as they begin PG programmes.

How is INI CET different from NEET PG?

INI CET seats are filled outside the NEET PG counselling and are limited to the 10+ Institutes of National Importance. INI CET has 200 MCQs across 4 sectionally timed parts (45 minutes each) with negative marking of 1/3 mark; NEET PG has 200 MCQs in 3.5 hours without sectional time limits. INI CET seats are among the most competitive in India.

What is the marking scheme and section structure for INI CET MD/MS?

MD/MS INI CET has 200 MCQs in 180 minutes split into 4 parts of 50 questions each. Each part has its own 45-minute timer; you cannot return to a previous section after time expires. Each correct answer earns +1 mark, each wrong answer deducts -1/3 mark. Unattempted questions: 0. MDS has 90 MCQs in 90 minutes.

What is the application fee for INI CET 2026?

INR 4000 for General/OBC candidates, INR 3200 for SC/ST/EWS, and INR 1500 for Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD). Fee is paid online during application submission at aiimsexams.ac.in.

When is INI CET held and what are the eligibility criteria?

INI CET is held twice yearly — January session (typically held in November of preceding year for January admission) and July session (held in May for July admission). INI CET January 2026 was held on 9 November 2025; July 2026 session is scheduled for 16 May 2026. Eligibility: completed MBBS with internship before joining; MCI/NMC registration.

What are the seven approved question formats in INI CET?

INI CET can include: Single Best Response (the dominant format), Multiple True False, Match the Following, Sequential Arrangement, Multiple Completion, Reason Assertion, and Extended Matching. The information bulletin specifies the exact distribution. All have negative marking of 1/3.

What is the typical cut-off score and competition for INI CET?

Cut-off percentile is 50th for General/EWS, 45th for OBC, and 40th for SC/ST. However, due to extremely high competition, scoring at the cut-off is insufficient for a seat — top INI seats (AIIMS Delhi clinical branches) typically require rank under 100. About 60,000-80,000 candidates appear for ~1,800 PG seats.

Is the INI CET syllabus the same as MBBS?

Yes. INI CET tests the entire MBBS syllabus across all 19 subjects with emphasis on higher-order clinical reasoning, recent updates (e.g., BNS/BNSS replacing IPC in forensic, WHO TB classification, ESC heart failure guidelines), and pre-clinical applications to clinical scenarios. Recent guideline changes appear frequently in INI CET papers.