100+ Free AICET for CITS Practice Questions

Prepare for the All India Common Entrance Test (AICET) for the Craft Instructor Training Scheme (CITS) exam with instant access — no signup required.

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: AICET for CITS Exam

2 hours

Official AICET duration for CITS 2026–27

NIMI CITS 2026–27 Prospectus

75%

Questions based on the CTS syllabus of the selected trade

NIMI CITS 2026–27 Prospectus

25%

Logical, numeric and reasoning aptitude questions

NIMI CITS 2026–27 Prospectus

The 2026 AICET for CITS is a two-hour online DGT entrance test. Its official pattern is 75% objective questions from the selected trade's CTS syllabus and 25% logical, numeric and reasoning aptitude. This 100-question practice bank provides common workshop/trade-theory foundations and aptitude practice; candidates must also revise the official CTS syllabus for their specific chosen trade.

Sample AICET for CITS Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your AICET for CITS exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Before servicing a machine, what action best prevents unexpected energisation?

A.Wear cotton gloves

B.Increase the machine speed

C.Apply lockout/tagout after isolating energy

D.Remove warning labels

Explanation: Isolating and locking the energy source prevents an unintended start while work is in progress. Warning labels alone do not isolate energy.

2Which PPE is most appropriate when grinding metal?

A.Loose apron only

B.Open sandals

C.Cotton earplugs only

D.Safety goggles or face shield

Explanation: Grinding can project particles toward the face and eyes, so suitable eye and face protection is essential. Other PPE may be needed but does not replace it.

3What is the first response to a small electrical fire when it is safe to act?

A.Pour water on live equipment

B.Touch the conductor to check it

C.Cover the panel with cloth

D.Isolate the electrical supply

Explanation: Removing electrical energy reduces shock and reignition hazards. Use an appropriate extinguisher only after considering safety and evacuation procedures.

4In 5S, which step means removing unnecessary items from the work area?

A.Shine

B.Standardise

C.Sort

D.Sustain

Explanation: Sort separates necessary items from unnecessary ones. It makes later organisation and cleaning more effective.

5A near-miss should be reported because it:

A.Proves an injury occurred

B.Replaces machine guarding

C.Eliminates the need for training

D.Identifies a hazard before someone is harmed

Explanation: Near-miss reporting lets the workplace correct unsafe conditions before they cause an injury. It complements, rather than replaces, guarding and training.

6Why should compressed air not be used to clean clothing or skin?

A.It only damages painted surfaces

B.It permanently freezes compressor oil lines

C.It is banned only because it wastes electricity

D.High-pressure air can drive particles into skin or eyes and can cause injury

Explanation: Compressed air can propel chips and dust at high velocity and can injure the body. Use approved cleaning methods and PPE instead.

7What is the safest way to remove metal swarf from a machine table?

A.Use bare hands

B.Blow it toward another worker

C.Use a brush or hook after stopping the machine

D.Wipe it while the cutter rotates

Explanation: Stop the machine and use a suitable brush or hook to avoid cuts and contact with moving parts. Sharp swarf should never be handled bare-handed.

8A yellow triangular safety sign normally warns of:

A.Mandatory PPE

B.A hazard or caution

C.A prohibition

D.Emergency escape

Explanation: Warning signs use a yellow triangle to draw attention to a hazard. Mandatory and prohibition signs use different shapes and colours.

9Why is good housekeeping important around machine tools?

A.It only affects tool paint finish

B.It removes the need for safety inspections

C.It reduces slips, trips and blocked access

D.It increases spindle cutting speed

Explanation: Clear floors and accessible routes reduce common workshop hazards. Housekeeping supports, but does not replace, inspection and machine controls.

10When lifting a load manually, which technique is safest?

A.Twist while lifting

B.Keep the load close and lift with the legs

C.Hold the load at arm's length

D.Jerking the load upward

Explanation: Keeping a load close and using leg strength reduces strain on the back. Twisting and sudden jerks increase injury risk.

About the AICET for CITS Exam

AICET is DGT's online national entrance test for admission to the Craft Instructor Training Scheme. Candidates take trade-specific CTS theory questions for the CITS trade they select plus logical, numerical and reasoning aptitude questions. Admission counselling uses the AICET merit list, candidate choices and reservation norms.

Assessment

AICET is an online entrance examination followed by centralised counselling for CITS admission. The test is two hours: 75% objective questions are based on the CTS syllabus for the applicant’s selected trade, and 25% are objective aptitude questions in logical, numeric and reasoning ability.

Time Limit

2 hours (CITS 2026–27 prospectus).

Passing Score

Qualifying marks for AICET 2026: General 33; OBC/EWS 29; SC/ST/PH 20.

Exam Fee

AICET 2026 entrance examination fee: ₹300 for General candidates; ₹200 for SC/ST/PH/EWS/Women candidates. Counselling fee: ₹500, non-refundable. (Directorate General of Training (DGT), Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship)

AICET for CITS Exam Content Outline

75%

CTS Trade Theory

Revise the CTS syllabus for the CITS trade selected in the application; this bank covers common workshop and technical foundations only.

25%

Aptitude

Logical, numerical and reasoning practice matching the categories named in the official prospectus.

How to Pass the AICET for CITS Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Qualifying marks for AICET 2026: General 33; OBC/EWS 29; SC/ST/PH 20.
Assessment: AICET is an online entrance examination followed by centralised counselling for CITS admission. The test is two hours: 75% objective questions are based on the CTS syllabus for the applicant’s selected trade, and 25% are objective aptitude questions in logical, numeric and reasoning ability.
Time limit: 2 hours (CITS 2026–27 prospectus).
Exam fee: AICET 2026 entrance examination fee: ₹300 for General candidates; ₹200 for SC/ST/PH/EWS/Women candidates. Counselling fee: ₹500, non-refundable.

Keys to Passing

Work through all 100 available questions
Review every answer and explanation
Track weak areas and revisit them
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

AICET for CITS Study Tips from Top Performers

1Use the official CITS trade list and syllabus to focus the 75% trade-theory portion on the exact trade selected in your application; no common bank can replace that trade-specific revision.

2Time a mixed aptitude set: the official test allows two hours, so practise numerical calculation, pattern recognition and short logical deductions without over-investing in any one item.

3Read the current NIMI admission prospectus before counselling because eligibility, dates, fees and institute choices are session-specific.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the AICET CITS 2026 exam pattern?

The CITS 2026–27 prospectus specifies a two-hour online test: 75% objective questions based on the CTS syllabus for the selected trade and 25% objective questions in logical, numeric and reasoning aptitude.

How many AICET CITS questions are there?

The official 2026–27 prospectus states the 75% trade-theory and 25% aptitude distribution, but it does not publish a fixed question count. This practice bank has 100 questions for revision.

What is the AICET CITS 2026 fee?

The official prospectus lists ₹300 for General candidates and ₹200 for SC/ST/PH/EWS/Women candidates as the entrance examination fee. It separately lists a ₹500 non-refundable counselling fee.

What are the AICET 2026 qualifying marks?

The prospectus lists minimum qualifying marks of 33 for General candidates, 29 for OBC/EWS candidates, and 20 for SC/ST/PH candidates.