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100+ Free CS Executive Paper 6 (ECIPL) Practice Questions

CS Executive Programme Paper 6: Economic, Commercial and Intellectual Property Laws practice questions are available now; exam metadata is being verified.

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ICSI CS Executive Programme (New Syllabus 2022) — Paper 1: Jurisprudence, Interpretation & General Laws

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ICSI CS Executive Programme (New Syllabus 2022) — Paper 2: Company Law & Practice

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ICSI CS Executive Programme (New Syllabus 2022) — Paper 3: Setting Up of Business, Industrial & Labour Laws

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ICSI CS Executive Programme (New Syllabus 2022) — Paper 4: Corporate Accounting and Financial Management

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ICSI CS Executive Programme (New Syllabus 2022) — Paper 5: Capital Market & Securities Laws

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ICSI CS Executive Programme (New Syllabus 2022) — Paper 7: Tax Laws & Practice

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: CS Executive Paper 6 (ECIPL) Exam

100 marks

Paper Weight

ICSI New Syllabus 2022

3 hours

Exam Duration

ICSI Examination Rules

20% / 80%

Objective vs Descriptive

ICSI Executive Programme

40% / 50%

Paper / Module Pass

ICSI Examination Rules

20 years

Patent Term

Patents Act 1970

Rs 2,000 cr

CCI Deal Value Threshold

Competition (Amendment) Act 2023

CS Executive Paper 6 (ECIPL) is a 100-mark, three-hour offline pen-paper exam under the ICSI New Syllabus 2022, with about 20% objective/MCQ and 80% descriptive questions and no negative marking. Part I covers economic and commercial laws including FEMA, FDI and FCRA, the Foreign Trade Policy, the Competition Act 2002, the Consumer Protection Act 2019, Legal Metrology, Essential Commodities, PMLA and Benami Transactions law. Part II covers intellectual property: Patents, Trade Marks, Copyright, Designs, Geographical Indications and Plant Varieties, plus IP enforcement and international treaties such as TRIPS, Paris, Berne, PCT and Madrid. ICSI requires 40% in the paper and 50% module aggregate to pass.

Sample CS Executive Paper 6 (ECIPL) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your CS Executive Paper 6 (ECIPL) exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA), which authority is empowered to make regulations to carry out the provisions of the Act?
A.The Central Government
B.The Enforcement Directorate
C.The Securities and Exchange Board of India
D.The Reserve Bank of India
Explanation: Under Section 47 of FEMA, the Reserve Bank of India is empowered to make regulations to carry out the provisions of the Act and the rules made thereunder. The Central Government makes the rules under Section 46, but regulations are the RBI's domain.
2FEMA, 1999 classifies foreign exchange transactions into two broad categories. Which of the following correctly names them?
A.Trade and non-trade transactions
B.Inward and outward transactions
C.Current account and capital account transactions
D.Debt and non-debt transactions
Explanation: FEMA divides transactions into current account transactions (Section 5) and capital account transactions (Section 6). Current account transactions are generally permitted unless restricted, while capital account transactions are permitted only to the extent allowed by RBI regulations.
3Under the FDI policy, foreign direct investment that does not require any prior approval of the Government and only requires post-facto reporting to the RBI is made through which route?
A.Government route
B.Approval route
C.Automatic route
D.Portfolio route
Explanation: Under the automatic route, FDI is allowed without prior approval of the Government or RBI; the investee company files post-investment reporting (Form FC-GPR) with the RBI through an authorised dealer bank. The Government route requires prior approval from the concerned administrative ministry.
4On an FDI inflow into an Indian company, within how many days must Form FC-GPR be filed with the Reserve Bank of India after issue of shares to the non-resident?
A.Within 30 days
B.Within 60 days
C.Within 90 days
D.Within 180 days
Explanation: Under the FEMA Non-Debt Instruments framework, the Indian investee company must report the issue of equity instruments to a person resident outside India by filing Form FC-GPR within 30 days from the date of issue of the equity instruments.
5Following the 2020 Press Note 3 amendment, an entity of a country which shares a land border with India can invest in India only under which route?
A.Automatic route up to 100%
B.No route is permitted at all
C.Portfolio route
D.Government route
Explanation: Press Note 3 of 2020 amended the FDI policy so that an entity of a country which shares a land border with India, or where the beneficial owner of an investment is situated in or is a citizen of such a country, can invest only under the Government (approval) route. This was a measure to curb opportunistic takeovers.
6Penalties under FEMA, 1999 for contravention are primarily which in nature?
A.Criminal, with imprisonment as the primary punishment
B.Strictly disciplinary by professional bodies
C.Civil/monetary, with imprisonment only on non-payment
D.Limited to cancellation of business licences
Explanation: A key feature of FEMA, unlike the earlier FERA, is that contraventions are civil offences attracting monetary penalties under Section 13 (up to thrice the sum involved where quantifiable). Imprisonment can be imposed only on failure to pay the penalty within the stipulated time.
7Under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 (FCRA), an association seeking to receive foreign contribution must ordinarily obtain which of the following?
A.A registration or prior permission from the Ministry of Home Affairs
B.A licence from the RBI
C.Approval from SEBI
D.Registration with the Registrar of Companies
Explanation: Under FCRA, 2010, a person having a definite cultural, economic, educational, religious or social programme must obtain either registration or prior permission from the Ministry of Home Affairs before accepting foreign contribution. The Act is administered by the MHA, not the RBI or SEBI.
8Under FCRA, 2010, a registration granted to an association is valid for a period of how many years, subject to renewal?
A.Three years
B.Five years
C.Seven years
D.Ten years
Explanation: An FCRA registration certificate is valid for five years, and the association must apply for renewal within the prescribed time before expiry to continue receiving foreign contribution. Failure to renew results in the registration ceasing to be valid.
9Under the amended FCRA framework, foreign contribution received by a registered association must be received only in an FCRA account opened with which bank?
A.Any scheduled commercial bank chosen by the association
B.Any nationalised bank in the association's home state
C.Reserve Bank of India, Mumbai
D.State Bank of India, New Delhi Main Branch
Explanation: Following the FCRA (Amendment) Act, 2020, every person granted registration or prior permission must receive foreign contribution only in an 'FCRA Account' opened at the State Bank of India, New Delhi Main Branch. Funds may later be transferred to other FCRA utilisation accounts.
10Which of the following persons is expressly prohibited under FCRA, 2010 from accepting foreign contribution?
A.A registered charitable trust
B.An election candidate
C.A college conducting research
D.A society registered for social work
Explanation: Section 3 of FCRA, 2010 bars certain categories from accepting foreign contribution, including candidates for election, judges, government servants, members of legislature, political parties, and certain media persons. Registered charitable bodies may accept it after obtaining registration or prior permission.

About the CS Executive Paper 6 (ECIPL) Practice Questions

Verified exam format metadata for CS Executive Programme Paper 6: Economic, Commercial and Intellectual Property Laws is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.