What is the exam pattern for CS Executive Paper 1 (JIGL)?

Under the ICSI new syllabus 2022, JIGL is a 100-mark, 3-hour offline pen-and-paper examination consisting of approximately 20% objective or case-based MCQs and 80% descriptive questions. There is no negative marking.

What are the passing marks for CS Executive JIGL?

A candidate must secure at least 40% marks in the JIGL paper individually and 50% marks in aggregate across the module to pass, under the ICSI examination criteria.

Does JIGL cover the new criminal laws BNS, BNSS and BSA?

Yes. The lessons on criminal law and evidence now cover the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which came into force on 1 July 2024, replacing the IPC, CrPC and Indian Evidence Act.

How many questions are on the CS Executive JIGL exam?

ICSI does not publish a fixed number of questions. The 100-mark paper mixes case-based objective MCQs (about 20 marks) with descriptive questions (about 80 marks).

Which laws are covered in CS Executive JIGL?

JIGL covers sources of law, the Constitution, interpretation of statutes, the General Clauses Act, administrative law, the law of torts, the Limitation Act, the Civil Procedure Code, BNS/BNSS/BSA, the Specific Relief Act, stamp and registration laws, the RTI Act, the Indian Contract Act, and the Arbitration and Conciliation Act.

Only partly. About 20% of JIGL marks are objective or case-based MCQs and the remaining 80% are descriptive, so MCQ practice helps but candidates must also master descriptive answer writing.

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Following the 2018 amendment, specific performance of a contract under the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is now generally:

A discretionary remedy in all cases

Available only for sale of goods

Never available

Available as a general rule, subject to specified exceptions

to track

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: CS Executive JIGL Exam

100

Total Marks

ICSI Executive Programme Syllabus

3 hrs

Exam Duration

ICSI Exam Pattern

40% / 50%

Paper / Module Passing

ICSI Passing Criteria

20% MCQ

Objective Component

ICSI Exam Pattern

1 Jul 2024

BNS/BNSS/BSA In Force

Government of India Notification

CS Executive Paper 1 (JIGL) is a 100-mark, 3-hour offline paper under the ICSI new syllabus 2022, structured as roughly 20% objective/case-based MCQs and 80% descriptive with no negative marking. It spans sources of law, the Constitution, interpretation of statutes, the General Clauses Act, administrative law, torts, the Limitation Act, the Civil Procedure Code, the new BNS/BNSS/BSA criminal laws effective 1 July 2024, the Specific Relief Act, stamp and registration laws, the RTI Act, the Indian Contract Act, and the Arbitration and Conciliation Act. Passing requires at least 40% in the paper and 50% aggregate in the module.

Sample CS Executive JIGL Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your CS Executive JIGL exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1In jurisprudence, which school of thought, associated with John Austin, defines law as the command of a sovereign backed by sanctions?

A.Historical school

B.Sociological school

C.Natural law school

D.Analytical (positivist) school

Explanation: John Austin is the leading figure of the Analytical or Positivist school, which treats law as the command of a political sovereign enforced by sanctions, separating law as it is from law as it ought to be. This is the imperative theory of law.

2Which of the following is regarded as a primary and binding source of law in the Indian legal system?

A.A policy speech by a minister

B.A textbook by a legal scholar

C.Legislation enacted by Parliament

D.An obiter dictum in a foreign judgment

Explanation: Legislation (statute) enacted by a competent legislature is a primary and binding source of law in India. Custom and judicial precedent are also primary sources, while juristic writings are persuasive secondary sources.

3For a custom to be recognised as a valid source of law in India, which of the following is NOT an essential requirement?

A.It must be ancient and continuous

B.It must be reasonable

C.It must be reduced to writing by the legislature

D.It must not be opposed to public policy or statute

Explanation: A valid custom must be ancient, continuous, certain, reasonable, and not opposed to morality, public policy or any statute. There is no requirement that a custom be reduced to writing by the legislature; once codified it becomes statute, not custom.

4The doctrine of 'stare decisis' in the Indian legal system primarily means:

A.Lower courts are bound to follow the precedents of higher courts

B.Every judgment of every court binds all other courts

C.Custom prevails over statute

D.Courts must follow the law as it ought to be

Explanation: Stare decisis means 'to stand by decided cases.' In India it requires lower courts to follow the binding precedents (ratio decidendi) of higher courts within the same hierarchy, promoting certainty and consistency in the law.

5Under Article 141 of the Constitution of India, the law declared by which court is binding on all courts within the territory of India?

A.District Court

B.National Company Law Tribunal

C.High Court of the State

D.Supreme Court of India

Explanation: Article 141 provides that the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India. This constitutionally entrenches the doctrine of precedent at the apex level.

6Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to equality before the law and equal protection of the laws?

A.Article 14

B.Article 19

C.Article 21

D.Article 32

Explanation: Article 14 guarantees to every person equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. It permits reasonable classification but prohibits arbitrary discrimination.

7Under Article 32 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of:

A.Directive Principles of State Policy

B.Fundamental Duties

C.Fundamental Rights

D.Ordinary statutory rights only

Explanation: Article 32 guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, and the Court may issue writs such as habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto. Dr. Ambedkar called it the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution.

8The writ issued to a person holding a public office to determine the legality of their claim to that office is known as:

A.Habeas corpus

B.Mandamus

C.Quo warranto

D.Certiorari

Explanation: Quo warranto ('by what authority') is issued to inquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office and to oust a usurper. If the holder lacks valid title, the court declares the office vacant.

9Under the scheme of the Constitution, the power of judicial review of legislation primarily flows from the courts' power to test laws against:

A.Parliamentary convention

B.The preamble alone

C.The Fundamental Rights and constitutional limits

D.Directive Principles only

Explanation: Judicial review allows constitutional courts to strike down legislation that violates Fundamental Rights or exceeds the legislature's competence and other constitutional limits. It is part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

10The doctrine of 'basic structure' of the Constitution was propounded by the Supreme Court of India in which landmark case?

A.Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

B.Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

C.Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

D.A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras

Explanation: In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court held that Parliament can amend the Constitution but cannot alter or destroy its 'basic structure.' This doctrine limits the amending power under Article 368.

About the CS Executive JIGL Practice Questions

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