100+ Free EASA ATPL 062 - Radio Navigation Practice Questions

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: EASA ATPL 062 - Radio Navigation Exam

66 questions

Exam Length

EASA 2020 syllabus / ECQB

1 h 30 min

Time Allowance

EASA ATPL 062

75%

Pass Mark (no negative marking)

EASA Part-FCL

4 satellites

Minimum for GNSS 3D Fix

GNSS principles

5 / 6 satellites

RAIM Detection / FDE Minimum

GNSS integrity

4 attempts / 6 sittings

Per-Subject Limits

FCL.025

EASA ATPL 062 (Radio Navigation) is one of 13 ATPL(A) theory subjects, sat as a computer-based exam of 66 multiple-choice questions in 1 hour 30 minutes, with a 75% pass mark and no negative marking, drawn from the ECQB (2020 syllabus, current ECQB 2026 content). It covers basic radio propagation (frequency bands, line-of-sight range, Doppler, polarisation); ground radio aids - NDB/ADF errors and RMI use, VOR/DVOR radials with CDI/HSI interpretation, DME slant range and arcs, ILS localizer/glide path/markers and CAT I-III, MLS, and VDF Q-codes; radar and transponders including SSR modes A/C/S at 1030/1090 MHz, Mode S 25 ft reporting, ADS-B and weather radar; area navigation and multi-sensor FMS position; GNSS (GPS/Galileo/GLONASS) with the 4-satellite 3D fix, RAIM/FDE, SBAS, GBAS and ABAS/AAIM; and Performance-Based Navigation, where RNP adds on-board monitoring and alerting (RNAV 5/1, RNP 1/4/0.3/APCH/AR) and approaches reach LNAV, LNAV/VNAV and LPV minima. PBN content was substantially expanded under the 2020 syllabus. FCL.025 allows four attempts per subject within six sittings.

Sample EASA ATPL 062 - Radio Navigation Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your EASA ATPL 062 - Radio Navigation exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Within which frequency band do conventional VOR and Doppler-VOR ground stations transmit?

A.108.000-117.975 MHz (VHF)

B.190-1750 kHz (LF/MF)

C.962-1213 MHz (UHF)

D.5031-5091 MHz (SHF)

Explanation: VOR (including DVOR) operates in the VHF band from 108.000 to 117.975 MHz, sharing the lower part (108.000-111.975 MHz) with ILS localizers, which is why ILS localizer frequencies fall on the odd-tenth/odd-hundredth pattern.

2An NDB transmits on a frequency of 350 kHz. In which propagation band does this navaid principally operate, and what is its main associated error at dusk and dawn?

A.VHF band; site error

B.HF band; coastal refraction only

C.UHF band; slant-range error

D.LF/MF band; night effect (ionospheric/twilight error)

Explanation: NDBs operate in the LF/MF band (ICAO 190-1750 kHz). At dawn and dusk the changing ionosphere returns sky waves that contaminate the ground wave, producing the bearing fluctuations known as night effect (twilight error).

3An aircraft on a magnetic heading of 075° displays an ADF relative bearing of 132° on a fixed-card (relative-bearing) indicator. What is the magnetic bearing TO the NDB (QDM)?

A.057°

B.243°

C.027°

D.207°

Explanation: QDM (magnetic bearing to the station) equals magnetic heading plus relative bearing: 075° + 132° = 207°. With a fixed card the pilot must add the relative bearing to heading mentally.

4On a Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI) the compass card is slaved to the aircraft heading. To read the QDR (magnetic bearing FROM the NDB), the pilot reads which part of the needle?

A.The head (point) of the needle

B.The lubber line at the top of the instrument

C.The 90° mark to the right of the head

D.The tail of the needle

Explanation: On an RMI the head of the needle indicates QDM (bearing to the station) and the tail indicates QDR (bearing from the station). Because the card is slaved to heading, both are read directly in magnetic terms.

5A Terminal VOR (TVOR) differs from a standard en-route VOR principally because it:

A.Transmits in the UHF band to avoid interference

B.Uses pulse techniques instead of phase comparison

C.Provides distance as well as bearing without a co-located DME

D.Is a lower-power VOR with a shorter range used in the approach/departure structure of major aerodromes

Explanation: A TVOR is a reduced-power VOR with a deliberately short range, installed to support the approach and departure structure at busy aerodromes where a full-power en-route VOR is unnecessary.

6A conventional VOR derives the aircraft's bearing by comparing two 30 Hz signals. Which statement correctly describes these signals?

A.A reference phase (constant, omnidirectional) and a variable phase (whose phase depends on bearing)

B.Two variable phases rotating in opposite directions at 15 Hz

C.A pulse-pair whose spacing encodes the radial

D.An amplitude-only signal with no phase information

Explanation: A conventional VOR transmits a 30 Hz reference phase (frequency-modulated on a 9960 Hz subcarrier, omnidirectional) and a 30 Hz variable phase (amplitude-modulated by the rotating pattern). The phase difference between them equals the magnetic radial.

7A Doppler-VOR (DVOR) was developed mainly to overcome which limitation of the conventional VOR?

A.Its short range over water

B.Its lack of an identification signal

C.Its inability to be used below 1000 ft AGL

D.Its susceptibility to siting errors caused by reflections from terrain and buildings

Explanation: The DVOR's large counterpoise and electronically rotated wide-aperture antenna make it far less sensitive to multipath/siting errors from nearby terrain and obstructions, which is the main reason it replaced conventional VOR at difficult sites.

8An HSI shows the course pointer set to 310°, a half-scale (approximately 6°) left deviation of the lateral bar, and a TO flag. Which radial is the aircraft currently on?

A.The 130° radial, displaced left of the selected course

B.The 310° radial, displaced right of the selected course

C.The 304° radial, tracking outbound

D.The 136° radial, displaced right of the selected course

Explanation: With a TO indication the selected 310° course means the aircraft is tracking toward the station on the reciprocal radial, i.e. the 130° radial. A left CDI deviation means desired track is to the left, so the aircraft is right of course but lying near the 130-131° radial region.

9Full-scale deflection of a VOR CDI (five dots) corresponds to an angular displacement from the selected radial of approximately:

A.±2°

B.±5°

C.±10°

D.±20°

Explanation: A standard VOR CDI shows full-scale deflection at ±10° from the selected radial, so each dot represents about 2°. (ILS localizer deflection by contrast is far more sensitive, full scale at about ±2.5°.)

10DME measures slant range by:

A.Comparing the phase of two 30 Hz signals

B.Counting frequency cycles received from the ground beacon

C.Measuring Doppler shift on a continuous-wave carrier

D.Measuring the time delay between an interrogation pulse-pair and the transponder reply, after a fixed 50 microsecond ground delay

Explanation: The airborne DME interrogator transmits paired pulses; the ground transponder replies after a fixed 50 microsecond delay, and the interrogator measures the round-trip time (less that delay) to compute slant range at 12.36 microseconds per nautical mile round trip.

About the EASA ATPL 062 - Radio Navigation Exam

Radio Navigation (Subject 062) is one of the 13 EASA ATPL(A) theoretical-knowledge subjects required for the Airline Transport Pilot Licence. It is a computer-based, single-best-answer multiple-choice examination drawn from the European Central Question Bank (current release ECQB 2026 under the 2020 syllabus). The subject tests the principles, operation, errors and operational use of ground radio aids (NDB/ADF, VOR/DVOR, DME, ILS, MLS, VDF), radar and transponders, area navigation and FMS, GNSS and its augmentation, and Performance-Based Navigation. Candidates have a maximum of four attempts per subject and must complete all 13 subjects under FCL.025.

Questions

66 scored questions

Time Limit

1 hour 30 minutes

Passing Score

75% per subject (no negative marking)

Exam Fee

Approximately EUR 60-130 per subject sitting (varies by NAA) (EASA via National Aviation Authorities (computer-based at approved test centres))

EASA ATPL 062 - Radio Navigation Exam Content Outline

12%

Basic Radio Propagation

Frequency bands (LF/MF/HF/VHF/UHF/SHF) and wavelength (300/MHz), ground/sky/space wave propagation, antenna theory and polarisation, the line-of-sight radio horizon (1.23 x sqrt of height in feet), the speed of light (3 x 10^8 m/s), Doppler shift, and precipitation static

30%

Ground Radio Aids (NDB, VOR, DME, ILS, MLS, VDF)

NDB/ADF (LF/MF band, night effect, coastal refraction, QDM/QDR and RMI), VOR/DVOR (phase comparison, CDI/HSI, cone of confusion, TVOR), DME (slant range, 50 microsecond delay, arcs, 100-aircraft capacity), ILS (108.10-111.95 MHz localizer, 3 degree UHF glide path, 75 MHz markers, CAT I-IIIC, false glide paths), MLS (SHF scanning beam), and VDF Q-codes

13%

Radar and Transponders

Primary radar pulse technique, PRF and maximum unambiguous range, beamwidth and resolution, SSR interrogation 1030 MHz / reply 1090 MHz, Mode A identity, Mode C 100 ft and Mode S 25 ft altitude reporting, selective addressing, FRUIT and garbling, ADS-B Extended Squitter, and airborne weather radar tilt/gain with attenuation shadow

13%

Area Navigation and FMS

RNAV definition and philosophy, simple 2D rho-theta phantom waypoints from VOR/DME, multi-sensor FMS position by Kalman-filtered blending of IRS, GNSS and DME/DME or VOR/DME, fly-by versus fly-over waypoints, and vertical (altitude) constraints feeding VNAV

16%

GNSS (GPS/Galileo/GLONASS) and Augmentation

Space/control/user segments, four-satellite 3D fix, pseudo-range and receiver clock bias, DOP/HDOP geometry, ionospheric and multipath errors, RAIM (5 satellites) and FDE (6 satellites), SBAS (EGNOS/WAAS), GBAS via VHF data broadcast for GLS, ABAS/AAIM with IRS and baro aiding, and the integrity/availability/continuity parameters

16%

Performance-Based Navigation (PBN)

PBN three components (infrastructure, navigation specification, application), RNAV versus RNP and the on-board performance monitoring and alerting requirement, specifications (RNAV 10/5/1, RNP 4/2/1/0.3, RNP APCH and RNP AR APCH), Total System Error (PDE/NSE/FTE), RF legs, and the LNAV, LNAV/VNAV (baro-VNAV) and LPV (SBAS) lines of minima

How to Pass the EASA ATPL 062 - Radio Navigation Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: 75% per subject (no negative marking)
Exam length: 66 questions
Time limit: 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam fee: Approximately EUR 60-130 per subject sitting (varies by NAA)

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

EASA ATPL 062 - Radio Navigation Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorise the navaid frequency bands cold: NDB 190-1750 kHz (LF/MF), VOR/localizer 108.000-117.975 MHz (VHF), DME 962-1213 MHz (UHF), ILS glide path around 329-335 MHz, markers 75 MHz, MLS 5031-5091 MHz (SHF)

2Practise CDI/HSI and RMI interpretation until automatic: QDM = heading + relative bearing, the RMI head shows bearing to and the tail bearing from, and on an HSI a TO flag means you are on the reciprocal of the selected course

3Drill the GNSS satellite numbers: 4 for a 3D fix, 5 for RAIM fault detection, and 6 for fault detection and exclusion (FDE); know SBAS (wide-area, geostationary), GBAS (local VHF data broadcast) and ABAS/AAIM (onboard IRS/baro)

4Learn the ILS categories with their DH/RVR: CAT I 200 ft/550 m, CAT II 100 ft/300 m, CAT IIIA about 50 ft DH and 175-200 m RVR, and CAT IIIC no DH/no RVR limit

5Build a one-page PBN table: RNAV 10/5/1 (no monitoring), RNP 4/2/1/0.3 and RNP APCH/AR (with monitoring and alerting), and the approach minima LNAV (2D), LNAV/VNAV (baro) and LPV (SBAS, down to about 200 ft)

6Remember DME measures slant range, not ground distance, so overhead a station the DME reads the height (about 1 NM at 6000 ft) and is least accurate close in and high

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are in the EASA ATPL 062 Radio Navigation exam and how long is it?

Subject 062 (Radio Navigation) consists of 66 multiple-choice questions with a time allowance of 1 hour 30 minutes. Each question has four options and a single best answer, drawn from the European Central Question Bank under the 2020 syllabus (current ECQB 2026 content).

What is the pass mark and is there negative marking?

The pass mark is 75% in each ATPL subject, including 062. There is no negative marking, so candidates should answer every question. Marks are not deducted for wrong answers, making it worthwhile to make an informed choice even when unsure.

How many ATPL theory subjects are there and how does 062 fit in?

There are 13 EASA ATPL(A) theoretical-knowledge subjects after VFR and IFR Communications were merged into a single subject 090. Radio Navigation (062) is the avionics/navigation-aids subject covering VOR, DME, ILS, NDB, radar, GNSS and PBN.

How many attempts and sittings are allowed under FCL.025?

Under FCL.025, a candidate has a maximum of four attempts to pass each subject, within a maximum of six sittings, and must pass all subjects within an 18-month period. Subject passes are then valid for ATPL issue for a defined period tied to the instrument rating.

Why is PBN so heavily tested in subject 062?

Under the 2020 syllabus the PBN weighting increased substantially (PBN questions rose from around 5 to roughly 13 per paper), reflecting the operational shift to GNSS-based area navigation, RNP approaches and LPV minima. Expect detailed questions on RNAV versus RNP, navigation specifications, and RNP approach minima.

What is the difference between RNAV and RNP specifications?

Both define a required navigation accuracy (e.g. plus or minus 1 NM for RNP 1, maintained 95% of the time). The key difference is that an RNP specification additionally requires on-board performance monitoring and alerting, so the system warns the crew if the required accuracy cannot be met; RNAV specifications do not.

Is the Area 100 KSA assessment part of the 062 exam?

No. The Area 100 Knowledge, Skills and Attitudes assessment is an ATO-internal assessment, not an authority multiple-choice examination. Subject 062 is one of the 13 NAA-administered ATPL theory examinations drawn from the ECQB.

100+ Free EASA ATPL 062 - Radio Navigation Practice Questions

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