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100+ Free ATPL Performance Practice Questions

Pass your EASA ATPL(A) Theoretical Knowledge - Performance (032) exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ATPL Performance Exam

45 questions

Exam Length

EASA ECQB 2026 (032)

2 hours

Time Allowed

EASA Part-FCL

75%

Pass Mark

EASA ATPL theory

2.4%

Second-Segment Gross Gradient (twin)

CS-25

0.8%

Net Take-off Path Reduction (twin)

CS-25

2000 ft

En-route Drift-down Clearance

Part-CAT

18 months

Window to Pass All Subjects

FCL.025

EASA ATPL 032 Performance is a 45-question, 2-hour computer-based multiple-choice exam (ECQB 2026) sat by airline-pilot candidates within an approved ATO theory course. It tests general performance theory - drag/thrust curves and V-speeds (VS, VMCG, VMCA, V1, VR, V2, VMU, VMBE) and the effects of mass, altitude, temperature, wind, slope and contamination (GRF runway condition codes). It covers Performance Class B take-off (1.25 factor) and landing (1.43 factor) distances, single-engine glide and forced-landing planning, and multi-engine accelerate-stop, critical engine and VMCA. The largest share is Performance Class A: declared distances (TORA/TODA/ASDA), balanced field length and V1 limits, take-off distance to 35 ft (15 ft wet), the four climb segments and required gross gradients (0.0/2.4/-/1.2% for a twin), the net flight path (0.8% reduction, 35 ft clearance), cruise optimum altitude, cost index, buffet boundary, drift-down (2000 ft), ETOPS, reduced/derated thrust, and turbojet landing factors (divide by 0.60; +15% wet). The pass mark is 75% with no negative marking.

Sample ATPL Performance Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ATPL Performance exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1In EASA ATPL Performance terminology, V1 is defined as the maximum speed at which the pilot must take the first action to stop the aeroplane within the accelerate-stop distance, and also the minimum speed at which the pilot can continue the take-off following an engine failure. Within which range must V1 lie?
A.Between VR and V2
B.Between VMCG and VR
C.Between VS and VMCA
D.Between V2 and VMU
Explanation: V1 cannot be less than VMCG (you must retain directional control on the ground after engine failure) and cannot exceed VR (you cannot decide to continue after you have already started rotating). Hence VMCG ≤ V1 ≤ VR.
2For a Performance Class A (CS-25 turbojet) aeroplane, the take-off safety speed V2 must be achieved at or before reaching a screen height of:
A.15 ft
B.35 ft
C.50 ft
D.400 ft
Explanation: For Class A aeroplanes on a dry runway the take-off distance is measured to the point where the aeroplane reaches a screen height of 35 ft, and V2 must be attained by that height. (On a wet/contaminated runway a 15 ft screen may apply for the take-off distance.)
3The accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA) for a runway is composed of:
A.Take-off run available plus clearway
B.Landing distance available minus the stopway
C.Runway length plus clearway plus stopway
D.Take-off run available plus stopway
Explanation: ASDA = take-off run available (TORA) + stopway. The stopway is a paved area beyond the runway able to support the aeroplane during an abandoned take-off. A clearway, by contrast, is added to TORA to form TODA.
4A clearway used in the determination of take-off distance available (TODA) for a Class A aeroplane is limited so that it may not exceed:
A.One-half of the take-off run available (TORA)
B.One-quarter of the take-off run available (TORA)
C.The full length of the take-off run available (TORA)
D.Twice the take-off run available (TORA)
Explanation: The clearway length used to compute TODA must not exceed half of the TORA. This regulatory cap prevents an excessively long air segment being credited against a short ground run.
5On the balanced field length concept for a Class A take-off, the balanced V1 is the speed at which:
A.The take-off distance required equals the available runway length
B.The aeroplane reaches the screen height with both engines operating
C.The accelerate-stop distance required equals the accelerate-go (take-off) distance required
D.VMCG equals VMCA
Explanation: The balanced field length exists where, for a given mass, the accelerate-stop distance required equals the accelerate-go distance required. Choosing the balanced V1 minimises the total field length needed when ASDA = TODA.
6If the runway has a stopway but no clearway, increasing V1 above the balanced value will generally:
A.Decrease the accelerate-stop distance required
B.Increase both the accelerate-stop and accelerate-go distances equally
C.Decrease the take-off (accelerate-go) distance required and increase the accelerate-stop distance required
D.Have no effect on either distance
Explanation: A higher V1 means the aeroplane is faster when an engine fails, so it needs less remaining runway to continue (lower TODR) but more runway to stop (higher ASDR). Where a long stopway is available, an unbalanced (higher) V1 can be used to exploit the extra stopping area.
7For a Class A twin-engine turbojet, the minimum required net second-segment climb gradient with one engine inoperative is:
A.2.4%
B.0.0%
C.2.7%
D.3.0%
Explanation: CS-25 requires a minimum gross second-segment climb gradient of 2.4% for two-engine aeroplanes (2.7% for three engines, 3.0% for four engines) with the critical engine inoperative, gear up, and at V2.
8In the four take-off climb segments of a Class A aeroplane, the third (acceleration) segment is characterised by:
A.A constant climb at V2 with gear extended
B.A descent to gain speed before the final climb
C.Level acceleration at constant height while flaps are retracted on schedule
D.A climb at VMCA with maximum continuous thrust
Explanation: The third segment is flown at a constant (level) height—normally at or above the net acceleration height—where the aeroplane accelerates from V2 to the flap-retraction/final-segment speed and the flaps are retracted on schedule.
9For the construction of the net take-off flight path of a two-engine Class A aeroplane, the gross climb gradient is reduced by a mandatory increment of:
A.0.8%
B.0.5%
C.1.0%
D.1.1%
Explanation: The net take-off flight path is obtained by reducing the gross gradient by 0.8% for two-engine aeroplanes (1.0% for three engines, 1.1% for four engines). This margin accounts for performance variability and ensures obstacle clearance.
10During the net take-off flight path, the aeroplane must clear all obstacles in the take-off flight path by a vertical margin of at least:
A.2000 ft
B.50 ft
C.1000 ft
D.35 ft
Explanation: The net take-off flight path must clear all obstacles by at least 35 ft vertically (or by 90 m plus 0.125 × distance horizontally). The net path already includes the gradient reductions, so the residual 35 ft margin is the regulatory clearance.

About the ATPL Performance Exam

Performance (032) is one of the 13 EASA ATPL(A) theoretical knowledge subjects. It is a computer-based, multiple-choice examination of 45 questions allowed 2 hours, drawn from the European Central Question Bank (current release ECQB 2026). The subject covers general aeroplane performance theory plus the certification and operating requirements for Performance Class B (light single- and multi-engine) and Performance Class A (CS-25 turbojets). The 75% pass mark applies per subject with no negative marking; the 032 paper was expanded from 35 questions in 1 hour to 45 questions in 2 hours under the current syllabus because of its heavy calculation content.

Questions

45 scored questions

Time Limit

2 hours 00 minutes

Passing Score

75% per subject (no negative marking)

Exam Fee

Approx. EUR 60-130 per subject sitting (set by each national aviation authority) (EASA national aviation authorities (computer-based testing, ECQB 2026))

ATPL Performance Exam Content Outline

20%

General Performance Theory

Lift, drag and thrust curves and the difference between jet and propeller thrust; the full set of V-speeds (VS, VMCG, VMCA, V1, VR, V2, VMU, VMBE) and their limits; the effect of mass, pressure altitude, temperature, wind (50% headwind/150% tailwind), runway slope and contamination; GRF runway condition codes and braking action; VX/VY, climb theory (excess thrust vs power), and absolute/service ceilings

12%

Class B Single-Engine Performance

Take-off distance to the 50 ft screen factored by 1.25 and landing distance factored by 1.43; order of slope and wind corrections; climb gradient (about 4%) and glide range at best lift-to-drag ratio; minimum-power endurance; en-route planning to reach a place for a safe forced landing after engine failure

13%

Class B Multi-Engine Performance

Accelerate-stop distance and the decision to reject; the disproportionate loss of climb gradient when half the thrust is lost; the critical engine concept (descending-blade/P-factor) and VMCA with the factors that raise or lower it; why light twins may be unable to climb away after an engine failure

25%

Class A Take-off & Field Length

Declared distances TORA, TODA (clearway up to half TORA) and ASDA (plus stopway); balanced and unbalanced V1 and the VMCG/VR/VMBE bounds; take-off distance to the 35 ft screen (15 ft wet) and the greater-of-1.15-all-engines rule; regulated and climb-limited (WAT) take-off mass; the four climb segments and required gross gradients (twin: 0.0%, 2.4%, level acceleration, 1.2% final)

15%

Class A Obstacle Clearance & Net Flight Path

Gross-to-net take-off gradient reductions (0.8/1.0/1.1% for 2/3/4 engines) and the 35 ft net-path obstacle clearance; acceleration height (minimum 400 ft) and its effect on near vs far obstacles; approved engine-out special departure procedures; reduced (assumed-temperature, max 25%) and derated take-off thrust and their limitations on contaminated runways

15%

Cruise, Landing & En-route

Maximum range and endurance speeds for jet (square-root-CL/CD and VMD) versus propeller (VMD and minimum power); optimum altitude, step climbs and the cost index; buffet onset boundary, coffin corner and 1.3g manoeuvre margin; en-route one-engine-inoperative drift-down (2000 ft clearance, 1.1% twin reduction) and ETOPS; turbojet landing factor (divide by 0.60), turbo-prop (0.70) and the +15% wet additive

How to Pass the ATPL Performance Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 75% per subject (no negative marking)
  • Exam length: 45 questions
  • Time limit: 2 hours 00 minutes
  • Exam fee: Approx. EUR 60-130 per subject sitting (set by each national aviation authority)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ATPL Performance Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorise the V1 limits: V1 must be at least VMCG and not more than VR, and must not exceed the brake-energy speed VMBE; VR must be at least V1 and 1.05 VMCA.
2Learn the twin climb-segment gross gradients cold: 0.0% first segment (gear down), 2.4% second segment at V2, level acceleration third segment, and 1.2% final segment clean.
3Know the net-flight-path gradient reductions: 0.8% for two engines, 1.0% for three, 1.1% for four, with at least 35 ft obstacle clearance on the take-off net path.
4Apply the wind rule correctly: credit no more than 50% of a reported headwind but apply at least 150% of any reported tailwind in take-off and landing calculations.
5Drill the landing factors: divide the demonstrated landing distance by 0.60 for a turbojet and 0.70 for a turbo-prop, then add 15% for a wet runway unless approved wet data exist.
6Practise GRF runway condition codes (RWYCC 6 = dry down to 0), the en-route drift-down 2000 ft obstacle clearance, and reduced-thrust limits (assumed-temperature max 25%, prohibited on contaminated runways).

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are on the EASA ATPL 032 Performance exam and how long is it?

The 032 Performance paper has 45 multiple-choice questions with a time allowance of 2 hours. Under the current syllabus it was expanded from the old format of 35 questions in 1 hour because of the heavy calculation and graph-reading content.

What is the pass mark for ATPL Performance?

The pass mark is 75% for each ATPL theory subject, including 032 Performance, and there is no negative marking. Each subject is passed independently.

What does Performance Class A versus Class B mean?

Performance Class A covers multi-engine turbojets certificated under CS-25 with detailed take-off, climb-segment, net-flight-path and landing requirements. Performance Class B covers smaller single- and multi-engine propeller aeroplanes with simpler factored distances such as 1.25 for take-off and 1.43 for landing.

What is balanced field length and the V1 concept?

Balanced field length is the runway length where, for a given mass, the accelerate-stop distance required equals the accelerate-go distance required. The balanced V1 is the decision speed that makes these equal; V1 must lie between VMCG and VR and must not exceed the brake-energy speed VMBE.

How are the take-off climb segments and net flight path defined?

A Class A take-off has four segments: first (gear down, gross 0.0% for a twin), second (gear up at V2, 2.4%), third (level acceleration and flap retraction) and final (clean, 1.2%). The net flight path reduces the gross gradient by 0.8% (twin) and must clear obstacles by at least 35 ft.

What landing distance factors apply for Class A aeroplanes?

For a turbojet the demonstrated landing distance is divided by 0.60 (about 1.67) for dispatch on a dry runway, and 0.70 (about 1.43) for a turbo-propeller. On a wet runway the required distance is increased by a further 15% unless approved wet data are used.

How many attempts and how long do I have to pass all ATPL subjects?

Under FCL.025 you have a maximum of 4 attempts per subject and up to 6 sittings, and all 13 subjects must be passed within 18 months. The full theory pass remains valid for 7 years toward ATPL issue, counted from the validity of your instrument rating.