All Practice Exams

100+ Free ATPL 070 Operational Procedures Practice Questions

Pass your EASA ATPL(A) Theoretical Knowledge - Operational Procedures (070) exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately
100+ Questions
100% Free

Loading practice questions...

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ATPL 070 Operational Procedures Exam

42 questions

070 Exam Length

EASA ECQB

1 h 15 min

Time Allowance

EASA ATPL(A) syllabus

75%

Pass Mark (no negative marking)

EASA Part-FCL

FL290-FL410

RVSM Altitude Band

ICAO RVSM

2 NM right

Maximum NAT SLOP Offset

ICAO NAT Doc 007

90 seconds

Evacuation Standard (half exits)

EASA CS-25 / Air OPS

18 months

Window to Pass All 13 Subjects

EASA FCL.025

EASA ATPL(A) subject 070 Operational Procedures is a computer-based multiple-choice theory exam of 42 questions in 1 hour 15 minutes, drawn from the European Central Question Bank (ECQB 2026) and sat at an NAA test centre. The pass mark is 75% with no negative marking. Under FCL.025 candidates have a maximum of 4 attempts per subject and 6 sittings, must pass all 13 subjects within 18 months, and passes remain valid 7 years for ATPL issue. Content covers general requirements (ICAO Annex 6, EU Air OPS Part-ORO/CAT/SPA, AOC, MEL/CDL, the basic fuel scheme, oxygen and mass and balance), long-range operations (ETOPS/EDTO rule time and adequate/suitable aerodromes, NAT HLA with SLOP up to 2 NM right and 15 NM contingency offsets, RVSM FL290-FL410, PBN), low-visibility operations (CAT I/II/III RVR minima, LVTO below 550 m, LVP and the approach ban), dangerous goods (ICAO nine classes, NOTOC, lithium batteries), and emergency procedures (rapid decompression, emergency descent, fire/smoke, ditching, evacuation, TCAS RA, windshear and wake turbulence). The ECQB 2024 release reworded 71 questions covering day/night human-factors operations, SLOP and NAT contingencies.

Sample ATPL 070 Operational Procedures Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ATPL 070 Operational Procedures exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under EU Air OPS, the structure of Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 divides operational requirements into Annexes. Which Annex contains the requirements applicable specifically to Commercial Air Transport operations (Part-CAT)?
A.Annex IV (Part-CAT)
B.Annex III (Part-ORO)
C.Annex V (Part-SPA)
D.Annex II (Part-ARO)
Explanation: Annex IV to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 is Part-CAT, containing the technical and operational requirements for commercial air transport. Part-ORO (Annex III) covers organisation requirements and Part-SPA (Annex V) covers specific approvals.
2The international standards and recommended practices for the operation of aeroplanes in commercial air transport are contained in which ICAO Annex?
A.ICAO Annex 2
B.ICAO Annex 6, Part I
C.ICAO Annex 8
D.ICAO Annex 14
Explanation: ICAO Annex 6 — Operation of Aircraft, Part I deals with International Commercial Air Transport — Aeroplanes. Part II covers general aviation and Part III covers helicopters.
3An aircraft has an inoperative item that is listed in the Minimum Equipment List (MEL). What is the correct interpretation of the MEL with respect to dispatch?
A.The aircraft may not be dispatched with any item inoperative
B.The MEL only applies after the flight has commenced
C.The aircraft may be dispatched provided the conditions and limitations in the MEL for that item are complied with
D.The MEL allows dispatch with any item inoperative without restriction
Explanation: The MEL is operator-specific and permits dispatch with certain equipment inoperative, but only when the associated operational (O) and maintenance (M) procedures, conditions and limitations are satisfied. It is based on, and no less restrictive than, the Master MEL.
4What is the essential difference between the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) and the Configuration Deviation List (CDL)?
A.The MEL relates to missing external structural/secondary airframe parts; the CDL relates to inoperative systems/equipment
B.Both relate only to engine systems
C.The CDL is mandatory while the MEL is advisory only
D.The MEL relates to inoperative installed instruments/equipment/functions; the CDL relates to missing secondary external airframe parts
Explanation: The MEL addresses installed equipment, instruments and functions that are inoperative, while the CDL addresses missing secondary airframe parts (e.g. fairings, access panels) approved as part of the type design. Both come with performance/operational limitations.
5According to EU Air OPS, who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft while in command?
A.The commander (pilot-in-command)
B.The operations control centre
C.The owner of the aircraft
D.The competent authority
Explanation: The commander has final authority over the operation of the aircraft and the safety of all persons and cargo on board while in command, in accordance with CAT.GEN.MPA.105.
6For a commercial air transport operation, the document that authorises an operator to conduct specified commercial air transport operations is the:
A.Certificate of Airworthiness
B.Air Operator Certificate (AOC)
C.Type Certificate
D.Operational Specifications letter only
Explanation: The Air Operator Certificate (AOC), issued under Part-ORO, certifies that an operator has the professional ability and organisation to ensure safe operation of aircraft and authorises the commercial air transport activities listed in its operations specifications.
7Under EU Air OPS, an operator must establish a minimum cabin crew complement. For an aeroplane with a maximum operational passenger seating configuration of more than 19, the minimum number of cabin crew is:
A.One cabin crew member regardless of passenger numbers
B.One cabin crew member for every 100 passengers carried
C.One cabin crew member for every 50, or fraction of 50, passenger seats installed
D.Two cabin crew members for the whole aircraft
Explanation: Per CAT.OP.MPA.170/ORO.CC.100, the minimum cabin crew is one for each unit, or part of a unit, of 50 installed passenger seats on the same deck. This is based on seats installed, not passengers carried.
8Under the EU 'basic fuel scheme' introduced for CAT aeroplane operations, the fuel a flight must carry includes taxi fuel, trip fuel, contingency fuel, alternate fuel (if required), final reserve fuel and:
A.Tankering fuel always
B.Only ballast fuel
C.No further categories
D.Additional fuel and extra fuel as required
Explanation: The standard fuel/energy scheme requires taxi, trip, contingency, destination alternate, final reserve, plus additional fuel (for specific scenarios such as isolated aerodromes/critical engine failure) and discretionary extra fuel at the commander's request.
9For a turbine-engined aeroplane in CAT operations, the final reserve fuel must be at least the amount required to fly for how long at holding speed at 1500 ft above the alternate (or destination) aerodrome in ISA conditions?
A.30 minutes
B.15 minutes
C.45 minutes
D.5 minutes
Explanation: For turbine-engined aeroplanes, final reserve fuel is the amount to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in ISA conditions. Piston-engined aeroplanes use 45 minutes.
10The carriage of the Operations Manual (or relevant parts) on board is the responsibility of the operator, but ultimate responsibility for ensuring the conduct of the flight complies with it rests with the:
A.Ground handling agent
B.Commander
C.Flight dispatcher
D.Cabin crew manager
Explanation: While the operator produces and amends the Operations Manual, the commander is responsible for the conduct of the flight in accordance with that manual and applicable rules.

About the ATPL 070 Operational Procedures Exam

Operational Procedures (070) is one of the 13 theoretical knowledge subjects in the EASA ATPL(A) examination, taken at a national aviation authority test centre as a computer-based multiple-choice exam drawn from the European Central Question Bank (current release ECQB 2026). It covers how commercial air transport flights are operated and how operational hazards are managed, spanning EU Air OPS and ICAO Annex 6 requirements, long-range and oceanic operations, low-visibility operations, dangerous goods, and emergency and hazard procedures. The subject comprises 42 questions answered in 1 hour 15 minutes with a 75% pass mark and no negative marking.

Questions

42 scored questions

Time Limit

1 hour 15 minutes

Passing Score

75% per subject (no negative marking)

Exam Fee

Approximately EUR 60-130 per subject sitting (varies by NAA) (EASA (European Central Question Bank); test delivered by national aviation authorities)

ATPL 070 Operational Procedures Exam Content Outline

30%

General Requirements (Air OPS)

ICAO Annex 6 Part I, the EU Air OPS structure (Annex III Part-ORO, Annex IV Part-CAT, Annex V Part-SPA), the Air Operator Certificate, commander and operator responsibilities, MEL versus CDL, mass and balance limits, the basic fuel/energy scheme with 30-minute turbine final reserve, isolated-aerodrome fuel, supplemental-oxygen thresholds, sterile flight deck, stabilised approach and threat and error management

22%

Long-Range and Oceanic Operations

ETOPS/EDTO 60-minute threshold and approved rule time, adequate versus suitable aerodromes, the critical fuel scenario, drift down, NAT organised track system, SLOP offsets up to 2 NM right, weather-deviation and level-loss contingency procedures (300 ft and 15 NM offsets), RVSM between FL290 and FL410, PBN/RNP with on-board monitoring and alerting, polar fuel-freeze considerations and the Mach number technique

13%

Low Visibility Operations

CAT I (DH 200 ft, RVR 550 m), CAT II (DH 100-200 ft, RVR 300 m), CAT IIIA (RVR 200 m) and CAT IIIB (RVR down to 75 m) definitions, LVTO below 550 m with approval and LVP required below 400 m, protection of ILS sensitive areas, the approach ban, the controlling touchdown RVR and limits on converting reported visibility to RVR

12%

Dangerous Goods

ICAO Technical Instructions and the nine hazard classes (1 explosives, 2 gases, 3 flammable liquids, 7 radioactive, 8 corrosives), hazard labels, the NOTOC notification to the commander, lithium battery and power-bank carriage rules, dangerous goods carried by passengers, company material (COMAT), incident and accident reporting and recognition training for all operators

13%

Emergency Procedures

Rapid decompression with mask-on, communicate and emergency descent to 10,000 ft or MSA, time of useful consciousness, Class C cargo fire suppression, cockpit and cabin smoke and fume drills, engine fire isolation and bottle discharge, fuel jettison and overweight landing, ditching configuration, the 90-second evacuation standard, protective breathing equipment and crew incapacitation

10%

Hazards and Avoidance

Windshear and microburst recognition and the maximum-thrust escape manoeuvre, the GPWS pull-up memory item, immediate TCAS resolution-advisory response over ATC, wake turbulence categories (Light/Medium/Heavy/Super) and approach separation such as 4 NM Heavy behind Heavy, bird strike handling, severe turbulence technique, Type I-IV de-icing fluids and the clean-aircraft concept, aquaplaning and the Global Reporting Format RWYCC 0-6

How to Pass the ATPL 070 Operational Procedures Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 75% per subject (no negative marking)
  • Exam length: 42 questions
  • Time limit: 1 hour 15 minutes
  • Exam fee: Approximately EUR 60-130 per subject sitting (varies by NAA)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ATPL 070 Operational Procedures Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorise the RVR minima: CAT I 550 m (DH 200 ft), CAT II 300 m (DH 100-200 ft), CAT IIIA 200 m and CAT IIIB down to 75 m, and remember LVTO is defined below 550 m with LVP required below 400 m
2Lock down the NAT figures: SLOP offsets up to 2 NM right in 0.1 NM steps, weather-deviation contingency uses a 300 ft level offset by direction, and level-loss contingency clears the tracks by 15 NM
3Learn the ETOPS framework: the 60-minute threshold for twins, the difference between an adequate and a suitable aerodrome, the still-air rule time, and the simultaneous-failure critical fuel scenario
4Know the rapid-decompression flow - oxygen masks on, establish communication, then emergency descent to 10,000 ft or MSA - and that time of useful consciousness at FL350-400 is only about 15-20 seconds
5Memorise the ICAO dangerous goods classes (1 explosives, 2 gases, 3 flammable liquids, 7 radioactive, 8 corrosives), the flame-over-circle oxidiser label, and that spare lithium batteries go in carry-on only with a NOTOC issued to the commander
6Drill the avoidance manoeuvres: follow a TCAS RA immediately over any ATC clearance, apply maximum thrust for windshear/GPWS escape, and recall wake turbulence is worst behind a heavy, slow, clean aircraft (4 NM Heavy behind Heavy)

Frequently Asked Questions

What is EASA ATPL subject 070 Operational Procedures?

It is one of the 13 theoretical knowledge subjects in the EASA ATPL(A) examination. It tests how commercial air transport flights are operated and how operational hazards are managed, covering EU Air OPS and ICAO Annex 6 requirements, long-range and low-visibility operations, dangerous goods, and emergency procedures.

How many questions are in the 070 exam and how long is it?

The Operational Procedures (070) paper has 42 multiple-choice questions and a time allowance of 1 hour 15 minutes. Each question has four options with a single best answer, drawn from the European Central Question Bank (current release ECQB 2026).

What is the pass mark and is there negative marking?

The pass mark is 75% for every ATPL theory subject, including 070. There is no negative marking, so candidates should attempt every question rather than leaving any blank.

What are the FCL.025 rules for completing ATPL theory?

Under FCL.025 a candidate has a maximum of 4 attempts per subject and 6 sittings overall, must pass all 13 subjects within an 18-month window, and the theory passes then remain valid for 7 years for the issue of the ATPL (from the validity of the instrument rating).

Which key numbers should I memorise for 070?

Useful figures include the 60-minute ETOPS threshold, RVSM between FL290 and FL410, CAT II RVR 300 m and CAT IIIB down to 75 m, LVTO below 550 m, NAT SLOP up to 2 NM right, the 90-second evacuation standard, and a 30-minute turbine final reserve.

What changed in the recent ECQB releases?

The ECQB 2024 release reworded 71 questions in 070, including day and night human-factors operations, the strategic lateral offset procedure (SLOP) and North Atlantic contingency procedures. The current ECQB 2026 release is a content refresh with the same question count and duration.

Is the Area 100 KSA assessment part of this exam?

No. The Area 100 Knowledge, Skills and Attitudes (KSA) assessment is an ATO-internal evaluation, not an authority multiple-choice examination. Subject 070 remains a 42-question MCQ exam at the national aviation authority test centre.