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100+ Free TEOT Ortopedia Practice Questions

Prepare for the TEOT — Título de Especialista em Ortopedia e Traumatologia (Sociedade Brasileira de Ortopedia e Traumatologia / AMB) exam with instant access — no signup required.

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: TEOT Ortopedia Exam

120 Items

Five-option MCQs on the official TEOT online theoretical stage

Edital TEOT — CET-SBOT / AMB

2 Stages

Stage 1 (Online Theory) + Stage 2 (In-person Oral, Skills & Physical Exam in Campinas/SP)

CET-SBOT

R$ 2.400,00

Registration fee for SBOT/AMB affiliated members (R$ 4.800 for non-members)

Edital Oficial CET-SBOT

6.0 / 10.0

Minimum final composite grade (60%) required for specialist title approval

Regulamento TEOT — CET-SBOT

RQE Ortopedia

Specialist Registration Credential Conferred with CFM

Conselho Federal de Medicina (CFM) / AMB

Annual

Official examination frequency conducted by CET-SBOT

Sociedade Brasileira de Ortopedia e Traumatologia (SBOT)

The TEOT is the official Brazilian orthopedic specialty board certification exam administered annually by SBOT and AMB. It consists of an eliminatory online theoretical exam of 120 MCQs followed by hands-on practical stations in Campinas/SP encompassing clinical oral cases, physical examination, and surgical technique evaluations.

Sample TEOT Ortopedia Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your TEOT Ortopedia exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 28-year-old motorcyclist sustains high-energy trauma to the right lower leg. Physical examination reveals an 11-cm laceration over the anterior tibia with extensive periosteal stripping, severe muscle crushing, and visible bone exposed without adequate local soft-tissue coverage, though distal dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are palpably intact. According to the Gustilo-Anderson classification for open fractures, how is this injury classified?
A.Gustilo-Anderson Type II
B.Gustilo-Anderson Type IIIA
C.Gustilo-Anderson Type IIIB
D.Gustilo-Anderson Type IIIC
Explanation: Gustilo-Anderson Type IIIB open fractures involve extensive soft-tissue laceration and loss, severe periosteal stripping, and bone exposure where local soft tissue cannot adequately cover the bone, necessitating rotational or free microvascular flap coverage. Type IIIA has adequate local soft-tissue coverage despite extensive laceration, whereas Type IIIC is defined by any open fracture associated with a major arterial injury requiring vascular repair to salvage the limb.
2A 34-year-old man who underwent closed reduction and cast immobilization for a closed comminuted tibial shaft fracture 12 hours ago reports unremitting, escalating pain in his calf that is completely refractory to intravenous morphine. Physical examination demonstrates a tense, non-compressible calf and severe exacerbation of pain upon passive dorsiflexion of the great toe. His blood pressure is 115/75 mmHg and intracompartmental catheter measurement of the deep posterior compartment records a pressure of 48 mmHg. What is the definitive management?
A.Immediate bivalving of the cast and elevation of the lower extremity above the level of the heart.
B.Immediate emergent two-incision, four-compartment fasciotomy of the leg.
C.Urgent CT angiography of the lower extremity to rule out popliteal artery pseudoaneurysm before surgical intervention.
D.Administration of intravenous mannitol and high-dose dexamethasone with compartment pressure re-evaluation in 4 hours.
Explanation: The patient exhibits classic clinical signs and objective manometric evidence of acute compartment syndrome of the leg. The delta pressure (diastolic blood pressure minus intracompartmental pressure: 75 - 48 = 27 mmHg) is less than 30 mmHg, which is the absolute diagnostic threshold confirming ischemia and mandating emergent surgical decompression via a two-incision, four-compartment fasciotomy (anterolateral and posteromedial incisions releasing anterior, lateral, superficial posterior, and deep posterior compartments).
3A 24-year-old male polytrauma patient is brought to the trauma center following a high-speed collision. He presents with severe bilateral pulmonary contusions, an open Gustilo IIIA femoral shaft fracture, and a closed pelvic ring injury. In the operating room, his core temperature is 34.2°C, arterial blood gas shows pH 7.20 and base deficit -8.5 mEq/L, and platelet count is 65,000/uL with active microvascular oozing. In accordance with Damage Control Orthopedics (DCO) principles, what is the most appropriate initial skeletal management?
A.Definitive reamed antegrade intramedullary nailing of the femur and open reduction and internal plating of the pelvic ring.
B.Rapid application of a temporary spanning external fixator to the femur and pelvic binder/external fixation, followed by transfer to the ICU for physiological resuscitation.
C.Immediate skeletal traction with a distal femoral traction pin and delayed surgery after 72 hours in the general ward.
D.Primary unreamed femoral intramedullary nailing under local hematoma block and intravenous sedation.
Explanation: This patient presents with the lethal triad of trauma (hypothermia <35°C, severe metabolic acidosis pH <7.24, and coagulopathy) and severe thoracic trauma ('borderline' to 'unstable' physiological profile). Under Damage Control Orthopedics (DCO) protocols, definitive prolonged osteosynthesis (Early Total Care) is contraindicated because the 'second hit' of major surgery triggers systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and multi-organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS); rapid stabilization with spanning external fixators minimizes surgical time and blood loss while optimizing physiology in the ICU.
4A 45-year-old woman sustains a displaced intra-articular distal radius fracture after falling on an outstretched hand. Radiographs demonstrate a comminuted fracture involving both the radiocarpal and distal radioulnar joints with 4 mm of intra-articular step-off, 25° of dorsal tilt, and 5 mm of radial shortening (AO/OTA 23-C3). Which anatomical structure serves as the primary landmark for placing a volar locking plate distal to the watershed line to prevent flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon rupture?
A.The pronator quadratus ridge and the volar rim watershed line, ensuring the plate remains proximal to the transverse volar prominence.
B.The Lister tubercle on the volar cortex of the distal radius.
C.The insertions of the superficial and deep heads of the pronator teres muscle.
D.The dorsal tubercle of the distal radioulnar joint capsule.
Explanation: The watershed line is a transverse ridge located 2 mm proximal to the joint line on the volar margin of the radius that demarks the distal margin of the pronator quadratus. Placing a volar locking plate distal to this watershed line or prominent beyond the volar cortex causes mechanical impingement and late attrition rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendons (Soong classification of plate prominence).
5A healthy 38-year-old construction worker falls from a scaffolding and sustains an isolated, displaced intracapsular femoral neck fracture. Pelvic radiographs show complete displacement with disruption of the trabecular pattern and femoral head tilting (Garden IV / AO/OTA 31-B3). What is the primary arterial blood supply to the femoral head threatened by this injury, and what is the optimal surgical strategy?
A.Artery of ligamentum teres; treated definitively with total hip arthroplasty.
B.Ascending branches of the lateral femoral circumflex artery; treated with non-operative touch-down weight-bearing.
C.Lateral epiphyseal branches of the medial femoral circumflex artery; treated with urgent anatomical reduction and rigid internal fixation.
D.Inferior gluteal artery; treated with closed reduction and a single 4.5 mm cortical screw.
Explanation: The primary arterial blood supply to the adult femoral head is derived from the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA), specifically its ascending lateral epiphyseal retinacular vessels running along the posterosuperior femoral neck. In a young patient (<60 years) with a displaced femoral neck fracture (Garden III/IV), head preservation is the standard of care; urgent anatomical reduction (closed or open) and stable internal fixation (e.g., parallel cannulated screws or a sliding hip screw with a derotation screw) must be performed to restore perfusion and reduce osteonecrosis risk.
6A 42-year-old male sustains a femoral neck fracture following a motorcycle collision. Radiographic assessment reveals a vertical fracture line oriented at 65° relative to the horizontal intercristal line on the AP pelvis view. According to the Pauwels classification, what is the classification of this fracture, and what biomechanical challenge does it present?
A.Pauwels Type I (<30°); dominated by compressive forces with minimal risk of displacement.
B.Pauwels Type II (30°–50°); dominated by pure tensile forces without rotational instability.
C.Pauwels Type III (>50°); dominated by high vertical shear forces that increase failure rates with standard parallel cannulated screws.
D.Pauwels Type IV (>70°); an unclassifiable subtrochanteric extension requiring total joint resection.
Explanation: The Pauwels classification is based on the angle of the fracture line relative to the horizontal line: Type I is <30° (compression forces dominate, stable), Type II is 30°–50° (shear forces present), and Type III is >50° (high vertical shear forces dominate). Pauwels Type III fractures are mechanically unstable and have high rates of varus collapse, screw cut-out, and nonunion when treated with standard parallel cannulated lag screws alone; they often require fixed-angle devices (e.g., sliding hip screw, dynamic hip system with derotational screw, or medial buttress plate) or a valgus intertrochanteric osteotomy.
7An 82-year-old woman falls from standing height sustaining an intertrochanteric hip fracture. Radiographs show a 3-part intertrochanteric fracture with comminution of the posteromedial wall and a reverse obliquity fracture line extending from the medial cortex laterally and distally through the lateral femoral cortex (AO/OTA 31-A3). What is the optimal surgical implant, and which metric must be maintained to prevent screw cut-out?
A.Sliding Hip Screw (DHS) with a standard 38 mm barrel plate; tip-apex distance (TAD) > 35 mm.
B.Cephalomedullary intramedullary nail; tip-apex distance (TAD) < 25 mm as described by Baumgaertner.
C.Isolated cancellous cannulated percutaneous screws in an inverted triangle pattern; TAD < 10 mm.
D.Hemiarthroplasty with an unconstrained monoblock cemented stem without trochanteric fixation; TAD is not applicable.
Explanation: Reverse obliquity and subtrochanteric-extending intertrochanteric fractures (AO/OTA 31-A3) are biomechanically unstable under lateral plate fixation because the lateral cortex is breached and the sliding screw tends to push the femoral shaft medially. A cephalomedullary nail provides an intramedullary load-sharing buttress with a shorter lever arm. In all femoral head screw fixations, Baumgaertner's Tip-Apex Distance (TAD) on AP and lateral radiographs must total less than 25 mm to minimize the risk of mechanical screw cut-out.
8A 22-year-old driver is involved in a head-on motor vehicle collision. In the resuscitation bay, he is hemodynamically unstable with a blood pressure of 75/40 mmHg. Pelvic AP radiograph reveals widening of the pubic symphysis of 3.5 cm along with disruption of the anterior sacroiliac ligaments, while the posterior sacroiliac ligaments remain intact (Young-Burgess Anteroposterior Compression Type II / APC-II). What is the primary source of life-threatening retroperitoneal bleeding in pelvic ring disruption, and what is the immediate initial stabilizing intervention?
A.Laceration of the common femoral artery; emergency open retroperitoneal packing.
B.Presacral and prevesical venous plexus injury; emergency application of a commercial pelvic binder or sheet centered at the level of the greater trochanters.
C.Rupture of the inferior mesenteric artery; emergency laparotomy with mesenteric vessel ligation.
D.Profunda femoris branch avulsion; application of unilateral skeletal traction.
Explanation: In 85% to 90% of pelvic fractures with severe retroperitoneal hemorrhage, bleeding originates from the low-pressure presacral/prevesical venous plexuses and cancellous fracture surfaces, whereas arterial bleeding (e.g., branches of internal iliac artery such as superior gluteal or internal pudendal) accounts for 10% to 15%. The immediate life-saving intervention is reduction of pelvic volume via a commercial pelvic binder or non-elastic sheet positioned precisely over the greater trochanters to re-appose the pelvic ring and promote tamponade.
9An orthopedic trauma specialist reviews the Judet obturator oblique and iliac oblique radiographic views of an acetabular fracture in a 30-year-old patient. The obturator oblique view highlights the anterior column and the posterior wall, whereas the iliac oblique view highlights the posterior column and the anterior wall. Radiographs reveal a fracture dividing the ilium and acetabulum into anterior and posterior halves with a characteristic 'spur sign' visible on the obturator oblique view. According to the Letournel-Judet classification, what is this fracture pattern?
A.Isolated anterior wall fracture
B.Transverse with associated posterior wall fracture
C.T-shaped fracture
D.Both-column (associated bicolumnar) fracture
Explanation: In the Letournel-Judet classification of acetabular fractures, the associated both-column fracture is characterized by disruption of both anterior and posterior columns such that no portion of the articular surface remains in continuity with the intact axial skeleton ('floating acetabulum'). The pathognomonic radiographic sign is the 'spur sign', seen on the obturator oblique view, which represents the prominent edge of intact ilium above the displaced posterior column.
10A 50-year-old pedestrian is struck on the lateral aspect of her knee by an automobile bumper, sustaining a high-energy Schatzker type IV tibial plateau fracture. Which clinical and anatomical features are most specifically associated with this fracture pattern?
A.Isolated low-energy split of the lateral plateau in young bone without medial collateral ligament compromise.
B.Fracture of the medial tibial plateau with high risk of popliteal neurovascular injury, compartment syndrome, and associated cruciate/posterolateral corner ligament tears.
C.Central depression of the lateral articular surface in elderly osteoporotic bone without cortical split.
D.Bicondylar fracture with complete metaphyseal-diaphyseal dissociation.
Explanation: Schatzker Type IV represents a fracture of the medial tibial plateau. Because the medial plateau is composed of dense cancellous bone and requires substantial varus and axial forces to fail, Schatzker IV fractures represent high-energy injuries associated with knee subluxation/dislocation, high incidence of neurovascular injury (popliteal artery and peroneal nerve), compartment syndrome, and soft-tissue ligamentous disruption (PCL and posterolateral corner).

About the TEOT Ortopedia Exam

The Título de Especialista em Ortopedia e Traumatologia (TEOT) is the gold standard board certification for orthopedic surgeons in Brazil, awarded by the Sociedade Brasileira de Ortopedia e Traumatologia (SBOT) in partnership with the Associação Médica Brasileira (AMB) and registered with the Conselho Federal de Medicina (CFM). Regulated by the Comissão de Ensino e Treinamento (CET-SBOT), the TEOT rigorous multi-phase examination evaluates trauma surgical indications, classification systems (AO/OTA, Gustilo-Anderson, Salter-Harris, Garden, Schatzker, Lenke, Lauge-Hansen, Neer), biomechanics, adult joint reconstruction, pediatric orthopedics, spine surgery, sports arthroscopy, musculoskeletal oncology, and hands-on surgical technique. Obtaining the TEOT title is the definitive requirement for Brazilian surgeons to register their Registro de Qualificação de Especialista (RQE) in Orthopedics and Traumatology.

Assessment

Two-phase annual examination administered by CET-SBOT and AMB. Phase 1 (Prova Teórica): Online computer-based exam featuring 120 multiple-choice questions on orthopedic trauma, reconstructive surgery, pediatric orthopedics, spine, sports medicine, tumors, and basic science (eliminatory, requiring ≥50% score). Phase 2 (Provas Presenciais em Campinas/SP): Multi-station practical evaluation consisting of an oral exam (clinical cases), physical examination/attitudes station, and a surgical skills/technique station. Final approval requires reaching an overall composite average of at least 6.0/10.0.

Time Limit

4 hours for Phase 1 online theoretical examination; 2 full days for Phase 2 in-person practical stations in Campinas, SP

Passing Score

Minimum score of 50% on the theoretical stage to advance, and composite final score of at least 6.0/10.0 across theoretical, oral, physical exam, and surgical skills components

Exam Fee

R$ 4.800,00 (taxa de inscrição do 55º TEOT, 2026); R$ 4.320,00 para residentes e especializandos regularmente cadastrados na CET-SBOT com 10% de desconto no pagamento por Pix ou boleto (Sociedade Brasileira de Ortopedia e Traumatologia (SBOT) — Associação Médica Brasileira (AMB))

TEOT Ortopedia Exam Content Outline

25%

Trauma Ortopédico e Fraturas

AO/OTA fracture classification, Gustilo-Anderson open fractures, damage control orthopedics, compartment syndrome and fasciotomies, pelvic and acetabular fractures (Tile, Young-Burgess, Letournel-Judet), proximal femur fractures (Garden, Pauwels, AO 31A/B), diaphyseal and articular fractures of the femur, tibia, distal radius, and ankle (Lauge-Hansen, Danis-Weber).

15%

Reconstrução Articular do Adulto e Artroplastia

Primary and revision total hip arthroplasty (THA approaches, cup positioning, Lewinnek safe zone, Paprosky bone defects), total knee arthroplasty (TKA alignment, kinematics, gap balancing, AORI defects), periprosthetic joint infection (MSIS/ICM criteria, DAIR vs two-stage exchange), and femoral head osteonecrosis (Ficat, ARCO).

12%

Coluna Vertebral

Degenerative cervical and lumbar disc diseases, cervical spondylotic myelopathy (Nurick/mJOA, ACDF vs laminoplasty), lumbar canal stenosis and spondylolisthesis (Meyerding, Wiltse), adolescent idiopathic scoliosis (Lenke classification, Cobb angle thresholds), and spinal trauma classifications (AO Spine, TLICS, SLIC).

15%

Ortopedia Pediátrica

Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH screening, Graf ultrasound, Pavlik harness, pelvic osteotomies), congenital clubfoot (Ponseti serial casting and tenotomy), slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE), Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease (Herring lateral pillar, Catterall), Salter-Harris physeal fracture staging, and angular/torsional deformities.

12%

Medicina Esportiva e Artroscopia

Knee ligament injuries (ACL reconstruction, PCL, posterolateral corner), meniscal tears and repairs, anterior shoulder instability (Bankart, Hill-Sachs, ISIS score, Latarjet), rotator cuff tears (Patte, Goutallier), and patellofemoral instability (MPFL reconstruction, Dejour trochlear dysplasia).

8%

Mão e Membro Superior

Scaphoid fractures (Herbert classification, screw fixation, SNAC wrist), flexor tendon injuries (Verdan zones I-V, zone II repairs), carpal and cubital tunnel compression neuropathies, distal biceps tendon ruptures, proximal humerus fractures (Neer classification), and clavicle fractures.

5%

Pé e Tornozelo

Hallux valgus deformity (IMA/HVA, osteotomies, Lapidus), adult acquired flatfoot deformity (PCFD/PTTD), acute and chronic Achilles tendon ruptures, lateral ankle instability (Brostrom), talus and calcaneus fractures (Hawkins, Sanders), and Charcot neuroarthropathy (Eichenholtz).

8%

Oncologia Ortopédica e Ciências Básicas

Benign and malignant bone and soft-tissue tumors (Enneking staging, osteosarcoma, Ewing sarcoma, giant cell tumor, Mirels score for metastatic disease), bone healing biology (primary vs secondary healing, Perren strain theory), articular cartilage, biomaterials, and orthopedic biomechanics.

How to Pass the TEOT Ortopedia Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Minimum score of 50% on the theoretical stage to advance, and composite final score of at least 6.0/10.0 across theoretical, oral, physical exam, and surgical skills components
  • Assessment: Two-phase annual examination administered by CET-SBOT and AMB. Phase 1 (Prova Teórica): Online computer-based exam featuring 120 multiple-choice questions on orthopedic trauma, reconstructive surgery, pediatric orthopedics, spine, sports medicine, tumors, and basic science (eliminatory, requiring ≥50% score). Phase 2 (Provas Presenciais em Campinas/SP): Multi-station practical evaluation consisting of an oral exam (clinical cases), physical examination/attitudes station, and a surgical skills/technique station. Final approval requires reaching an overall composite average of at least 6.0/10.0.
  • Time limit: 4 hours for Phase 1 online theoretical examination; 2 full days for Phase 2 in-person practical stations in Campinas, SP
  • Exam fee: R$ 4.800,00 (taxa de inscrição do 55º TEOT, 2026); R$ 4.320,00 para residentes e especializandos regularmente cadastrados na CET-SBOT com 10% de desconto no pagamento por Pix ou boleto

Keys to Passing

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

TEOT Ortopedia Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master Classic Classification Systems: Memorize the exact criteria, stages, and treatment implications for AO/OTA fracture classifications, Gustilo-Anderson open fractures, Garden and Pauwels for femoral neck, Schatzker for tibial plateau, Neer for proximal humerus, Lauge-Hansen for ankle, Lenke for scoliosis, and Salter-Harris for physeal injuries.
2Understand Trauma Decision Algorithms: Be fluent in Damage Control Orthopedics (DCO) indications (hypothermia, acidosis, coagulopathy, unstable hemodynamics) versus Early Total Care (ETC), compartment syndrome measurement thresholds (delta pressure ≤30 mmHg) and surgical fasciotomy release techniques.
3Consolidate Pediatric Orthopedic Protocols: Know the exact treatment timelines and surgical indications for DDH (Pavlik under 6 months, closed/open reduction and osteotomies thereafter), Ponseti clubfoot manipulation sequences, urgent SCFE in situ pinning, and Perthes lateral pillar prognostic stratification.
4Review Joint Arthroplasty Alignments and Complications: Master primary THA and TKA component positioning, safe zones (Lewinnek), revision bone defect classifications (Paprosky, AORI), and periprosthetic joint infection (PJI) diagnostic consensus criteria (MSIS/ICM) and management strategies (DAIR vs 2-stage exchange).
5Correlate Spine and Sports Surgical Indications: Review Lenke 1-6 curve types, surgical vs conservative Cobb angle thresholds, AO Spine thoracolumbar injury classification (TLICS), knee ligament repair/reconstruction protocols (ACL + ALL), and anterior shoulder instability decision-making (ISIS score >3/6 prompting Latarjet).
6Practice Timed Board-Style MCQ Scenarios: Complete full blocks of multi-step clinical vignettes under timed conditions to hone rapid distractor elimination and clinical judgment.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the TEOT and why is it essential for orthopedic surgeons in Brazil?

The Título de Especialista em Ortopedia e Traumatologia (TEOT) is the official medical specialist certification conferred by the Sociedade Brasileira de Ortopedia e Traumatologia (SBOT) and the Associação Médica Brasileira (AMB). Passing the TEOT exam enables physicians to register their specialized qualification (Registro de Qualificação de Especialista - RQE) in Orthopedics and Traumatology with the Regional Medical Councils (CRMs) and the Federal Council of Medicine (CFM), legally qualifying them to practice and advertise as orthopedic surgeons throughout Brazil.

What are the eligibility prerequisites to sit for the TEOT examination?

Candidates must hold an active CRM registration in Brazil and satisfy one of the qualifying training criteria: (1) Completion of an accredited 3-year Medical Residency Program (CNRM/MEC) in Orthopedics and Traumatology; (2) Completion of an SBOT-accredited Specialization Program (CET-SBOT); or (3) Proven clinical and surgical practice in Orthopedics for at least 6 years (double the residency duration). Additionally, candidates must submit and obtain approval for an original scientific research paper (trabalho científico) as specified in the annual CET-SBOT Edital.

How is the TEOT examination structured across its stages?

The exam is divided into two major stages: (1) Phase 1 (Prova Teórica): An online computer-based examination with 100 to 120 multiple-choice questions assessing theoretical trauma, reconstruction, pediatric orthopedics, spine, sports medicine, tumors, and basic sciences, with a 50% eliminatory cutoff; (2) Phase 2 (Provas Presenciais): In-person multi-station evaluations held in Campinas (SP) including an oral exam with examiners on clinical cases, physical examination and attitudes assessment, and surgical technique/skills stations.

What is the passing score and grading criteria for the TEOT?

To be awarded the specialist title, candidates must achieve at least 50% on the eliminatory online theoretical exam and secure a minimum final composite grade of 6.0 out of 10.0 (60%) calculated from the weighted scores of the theoretical exam, oral examination, surgical skills station, and physical examination stations as defined in the official annual Edital.

What role does the TEPOT play in preparing for the TEOT?

The Teste de Progresso dos Residentes (TEPOT) is an annual formative assessment administered by CET-SBOT to all orthopedic residents in training across Brazil (R1, R2, R3). Consistent participation and high performance across the three years of residency grant bonus points on the theoretical phase of the TEOT exam, in addition to serving as a diagnostic benchmark for exam readiness.

Why is this OpenExamPrep practice bank presented in English?

This practice bank is an English-language MCQ study adaptation, not a replica of the official paper: the real TEOT is sat in Portuguese and uses five alternatives per item, whereas our questions use four. It is offered to support international orthopedic fellows, Brazilian residents who prefer to revise in English, and surgeons worldwide. All official Portuguese terminology, SBOT classification systems, and Brazilian surgical protocols are preserved inline.