100+ Free Título de Especialista em Cirurgia Plástica (SBCP / AMB) Practice Questions

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Practice Questions100 questions

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Título de Especialista em Cirurgia Plástica (SBCP / AMB) Exam

100 MCQs

Written Objective Exam

Edital Oficial SBCP / AMB

4 Hours (240 min)

Written Exam Time Limit

SBCP Comissão de Título de Especialista

70% (7.0 / 10.0)

Minimum Passing Score

Regulamento Oficial SBCP / AMB

2 Stages

Written + Practical-Oral Defense

SBCP / AMB Certame

5 Years Training

Prerequisite Residencies (2y Gen Surg + 3y Plastic)

CNRM / MEC / CFM Norms

Res. CFM 1.711/04

Liposuction Safety Guidelines

Conselho Federal de Medicina

9 Core Modules

Curricular Matrix Blueprint

SBCP Educational Framework

Permanent RQE

Board Certification Validity

Conselho Federal de Medicina (CFM)

The SBCP / AMB Título de Especialista em Cirurgia Plástica exam is Brazil's board certification in plastic surgery, comprising a 100-MCQ written theoretical exam (4h, 70% passing score) and a practical-oral clinical defense covering reconstructive microsurgery, craniofacial surgery, burns, breast reconstruction, hand surgery, facial/body aesthetic surgery, and surgical safety.

Sample Título de Especialista em Cirurgia Plástica (SBCP / AMB) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Título de Especialista em Cirurgia Plástica (SBCP / AMB) exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1In the physiological cascade of cutaneous wound healing, which cellular population arrives first at the wound bed to initiate acute debridement, and which subsequent cell acts as the primary orchestrator of the proliferative phase?

A.Neutrophils (polymorphonuclear leukocytes) are the first to arrive (peaking at 24–48 hours), followed by Macrophages (peaking at 48–72 hours), which act as the essential orchestrator of healing by releasing TGF-beta, PDGF, and FGF.

B.Platelets are the first to extravasate and persist as the primary orchestrators throughout the remodeling phase up to one year post-injury.

C.Fibroblasts arrive within the first 6 hours to immediately deposit mature cross-linked Type I collagen under the stimulus of epidermal growth factor.

D.T-lymphocytes arrive in the first 12 hours to mediate acute phagocytosis, followed by mast cells that secrete matrix metalloproteinases.

Explanation: Cutaneous wound healing follows three overlapping phases: inflammatory, proliferative, and remodeling. Neutrophils arrive first within minutes to 24-48 hours primarily for bacterial clearance and tissue debridement. Macrophages arrive slightly later (48-72 hours) and are essential for normal healing, releasing key cytokines and growth factors (TGF-beta, PDGF, bFGF, VEGF) that recruit fibroblasts and endothelial cells to drive the proliferative phase.

2What is the characteristic distribution and transition of collagen subtypes between normal unwounded adult dermis and early healing granulation tissue?

A.Normal adult dermis contains approximately 80% Type I and 20% Type III collagen (ratio 4:1), whereas early granulation tissue predominantly synthesizes Type III collagen (up to 30–40%), which is later replaced by Type I during remodeling.

B.Normal adult dermis is 90% Type III collagen, which converts exclusively into Type IV basement membrane collagen during the remodeling phase.

C.Granulation tissue exclusively produces Type II cartilaginous collagen, which undergoes chondroid metaplasia before turning into Type I collagen.

D.Normal adult dermis and early scar tissue exhibit an identical 1:1 ratio of Type I to Type III collagen throughout all stages of life.

Explanation: In uninjured adult human dermis, Type I collagen constitutes approximately 80% and Type III represents about 20% (a 4:1 ratio). During early wound repair and granulation tissue formation, fibroblasts rapidly synthesize Type III collagen (reaching 30-40% or more), providing compliant provisional structural support. During the remodeling phase, matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs) degrade Type III collagen as it is replaced by stronger, more organized Type I collagen fibers.

3Which clinical and histopathological feature definitively differentiates a keloid (queloide) from a hypertrophic scar (cicatriz hipertrófica)?

A.Keloids grow beyond the original boundaries of the initial wound into surrounding normal tissue with thick, disorganized, hyalinized collagen bundles and rarely regress spontaneously, whereas hypertrophic scars remain confined to the original wound margins and often regress over time.

B.Hypertrophic scars extend extensively into adjacent normal skin across anatomical borders, while keloids remain strictly limited to the original surgical incision line.

C.Keloids possess high concentrations of Type IV collagen and respond permanently to simple surgical excision alone with zero recurrence risk.

D.Hypertrophic scars occur almost exclusively in dark-skinned individuals on the earlobes and sternum, while keloids have no anatomical or racial predilection.

Explanation: The hallmark distinction is that keloids invade beyond the margins of the original cutaneous injury and do not undergo spontaneous regression, featuring thick, haphazardly arranged, hyalinized 'keloid collagen' bundles on histology. In contrast, hypertrophic scars stay strictly within the original injury borders, contain collagen bundles arranged parallel to the epithelial surface, and frequently improve or regress spontaneously over 12-24 months.

4What are the three classical, sequential physiological phases of skin graft integration (pega do enxerto de pele) onto a recipient bed?

A.1) Plasmatic imbibition (0–48 hours), 2) Inosculation (48–72 hours), and 3) Revascularization / Angiogenesis (day 3 onwards).

B.1) Fibroblast proliferation (0–24 hours), 2) Neocollagenesis (day 2–5), and 3) Lymphatic maturation (week 3).

C.1) Endothelial budding (0–12 hours), 2) Granulation tissue ingrowth (day 2), and 3) Epidermal desquamation (day 7).

D.1) Hemostasis (0–6 hours), 2) Epithelial migration (day 1–3), and 3) Apoptosis (day 5–10).

Explanation: Skin graft integration relies on three distinct chronological stages: 1) Plasmatic imbibition (first 24-48 hours), where the graft absorbs nutrients and fluid by passive diffusion from the capillary bed; 2) Inosculation (48-72 hours), where donor and recipient capillary vessels align and establish direct microvascular connections; and 3) Revascularization/neovascularization (day 3-7), where true capillary ingrowth and mature blood and lymphatic flow are fully established.

5Regarding the biomechanical properties of skin grafts, how do full-thickness skin grafts (FTSG / enxertos de pele total) compare to split-thickness skin grafts (STSG / enxertos de pele parcial) in terms of primary and secondary contraction?

A.FTSG exhibits greater primary contraction (immediate recoil upon harvesting due to higher elastin content in the dermis) but significantly less secondary contraction (late wound bed shrinkage), whereas STSG exhibits minimal primary contraction but substantial secondary contraction.

B.STSG exhibits massive primary contraction due to thick dermal collagen, while FTSG undergoes severe secondary contraction over 6 months.

C.Both FTSG and STSG demonstrate identical primary and secondary contraction rates because contraction is determined entirely by recipient bed fibroblasts.

D.FTSG exhibits zero primary contraction and maximal secondary contraction, making it unsuitable for aesthetic facial reconstruction.

Explanation: Primary contraction is the immediate elastic recoil of the graft immediately after harvesting from the donor site, which is directly proportional to dermal thickness and elastin content (greatest in FTSG). Secondary contraction is the progressive shrinkage of the graft over weeks to months caused by myofibroblast activity in the recipient bed; thicker dermis in FTSG resists myofibroblast contractile forces, resulting in much less secondary contraction compared to STSG.

6What is the primary anatomical difference between an axial pattern skin flap (retalho axial) and a random pattern skin flap (retalho ao acaso)?

A.An axial flap is vascularized by a specific, anatomically defined direct cutaneous artery and vein along its longitudinal axis, allowing greater length-to-width ratios, whereas a random flap relies on the non-directional dermal-subdermal vascular plexus.

B.A random flap receives blood supply from a named axial vascular pedicle, whereas an axial flap relies entirely on microvascular perforators through deep fascia.

C.An axial flap can only be used as a free microvascular transfer, while random flaps can only be rotated as island flaps.

D.Axial flaps have a strict mandatory 1:1 length-to-width ratio constraint, whereas random flaps can safely exceed a 5:1 ratio anywhere on the body.

Explanation: Axial flaps contain an anatomically recognized direct cutaneous artery and vein running along their long axis (e.g., paramedian forehead flap supplied by the supratrochlear artery, deltopectoral flap by internal mammary perforators), allowing flaps to be designed with high length-to-width ratios. Random pattern flaps lack a specific named vessel and depend solely on the interconnecting subdermal and dermal microvascular plexuses, typically restricting their safe length-to-width ratio (traditionally 1:1 to 2:1 on the trunk/extremities).

7According to the Mathes and Nahai classification of muscle and musculocutaneous flaps, which muscle is correctly matched to its vascular pattern category?

A.Gracilis — Type II (one dominant vascular pedicle from the medial circumflex femoral vessels and minor segmental pedicles from the superficial femoral artery).

B.Tensor Fasciae Latae (TFL) — Type IV (segmental vascular pedicles throughout the muscle belly).

C.Latissimus dorsi — Type I (single isolated vascular pedicle without secondary blood supply).

D.Gluteus maximus — Type V (one dominant vascular pedicle and secondary segmental pedicles).

Explanation: Under the Mathes and Nahai classification: Type I = single dominant pedicle (Gastrocnemius, TFL); Type II = dominant pedicle plus minor pedicles (Gracilis, Soleus, Trapezius); Type III = two dominant pedicles (Rectus abdominis, Gluteus maximus); Type IV = segmental pedicles (Sartorius, Tibialis anterior); Type V = one dominant pedicle plus secondary segmental pedicles (Latissimus dorsi, Pectoralis major). Thus, the Gracilis is a classic Type II flap.

8In the surgical planning of an Anterolateral Thigh (ALT / Retalho Anterolateral da Coxa) perforator flap, what is the primary source vessel and what anatomical intramuscular route do the majority of cutaneous perforators traverse?

A.The descending branch of the lateral circumflex femoral artery (LCFA), with perforators predominantly traversing the vastus lateralis muscle (musculocutaneous perforators) in approximately 80–85% of cases.

B.The superficial femoral artery directly, with perforators coursing exclusively through the rectus femoris muscle belly in 100% of patients.

C.The deep femoral artery trunk, traversing septocutaneously between the sartorius and gracilis muscles.

D.The medial circumflex femoral artery, sending only direct fasciocutaneous branches through the fascia lata without muscular contact.

Explanation: The Anterolateral Thigh (ALT) perforator flap is supplied by the descending branch of the lateral circumflex femoral artery (LCFA), which travels in the intermuscular septum between the rectus femoris and vastus lateralis. Cutaneous perforators to the overlying skin paddle are musculocutaneous (traversing the vastus lateralis muscle) in ~80-85% of cases, requiring intramuscular dissection, and septocutaneous (traveling within the intermuscular septum) in the remaining ~15-20%.

9Negative Pressure Wound Therapy (NPWT / Curativo a Vácuo) promotes granulation tissue formation and wound preparation through which primary physical and biological mechanisms, and in which clinical situation is it absolutely contraindicated?

A.It promotes macrodeformation (wound shrinkage/approximation) and microdeformation (cellular strain stimulating mitosis and angiogenesis) while reducing interstitial edema; it is absolutely contraindicated over untreated macroscopic malignancy in the wound bed.

B.It acts exclusively by delivering high-dose hyperbaric oxygen to deep tissues; it is absolutely contraindicated in clean, non-infected open surgical wounds.

C.It prevents all fibroblast activity to inhibit scar formation; it is absolutely contraindicated in patients with diabetes mellitus.

D.It causes local tissue hypoperfusion to induce ischemic preconditioning; it is absolutely contraindicated in skin graft donor sites.

Explanation: NPWT exerts both macrostrain (drawing wound edges together, removing exudate and third-space interstitial edema) and microstrain (cellular microdeformation triggering mechanotransduction, cell proliferation, protein synthesis, and robust angiogenesis). Absolute contraindications include: untreated malignancy in the wound (due to risk of accelerating tumor growth and spread), exposed vital organs/major blood vessels without protective barrier, untreated osteomyelitis, necrotic tissue with eschar, and unexplored non-enteric fistulae.

10During tissue expansion (expansão tecidual), what fundamental histomorphological changes occur in the expanded skin layers and capsule?

A.The epidermis becomes thickened (hyperplastic), the dermis thins significantly with fragmented elastic fibers, subcutaneous adipose tissue undergoes marked atrophy, and a highly vascular fibrous capsule forms around the expander shell.

B.The epidermis thins to a single cell layer, the dermis thickens fivefold through hypertrophy, and the fibrous capsule remains completely avascular.

C.All skin layers (epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous fat) undergo uniform hypertrophy and increase in thickness by 200%.

D.Subcutaneous fat increases in thickness due to adipocyte hyperplasia, while dermal collagen disappears completely.

Explanation: Sustained mechanical tension from a tissue expander induces both mechanical creep (realignment of collagen) and biological creep (active cellular proliferation). Histologically, the epidermis thickens (increased mitotic activity in the basal layer with hyperkeratosis), the dermis thins dramatically (collagen fibers compact and elastic fibers fragment), subcutaneous fat is compressed and atrophies, and a thick, highly vascularized fibrous capsule forms at the expander-tissue interface.

About the Título de Especialista em Cirurgia Plástica (SBCP / AMB) Exam

The Título de Especialista em Cirurgia Plástica (TECP) is Brazil's premier medical board qualification exam in plastic surgery, jointly conferred by the Sociedade Brasileira de Cirurgia Plástica (SBCP) and the Associação Médica Brasileira (AMB), and officially recognized by the Conselho Federal de Medicina (CFM). The qualification process consists of a rigorous two-stage examination: a 100-question written theoretical examination (Prova Teórica Escrita) and an in-depth practical-oral examination (Prova Prático-Oral) evaluating operative judgment, flap and reconstruction planning, aesthetic facial and body analysis, and perioperative safety. The curriculum spans basic surgical principles, wound healing biology, skin grafts, local, regional and free microvascular flaps, acute burn resuscitation and contracture release, oncologic reconstruction of skin tumors (melanoma, basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma), craniomaxillofacial trauma and congenital malformations (cleft lip/palate, craniosynostosis), post-mastectomy breast reconstruction (implants, DIEP, TRAM, latissimus dorsi), hand trauma and reconstructive microsurgery, facial aesthetic surgery (rhinoplasty, blepharoplasty, rhytidectomy, browlift), body contouring (liposuction, abdominoplasty, reduction mammaplasty, mastopexy, gluteoplasty), and patient safety standards (venous thromboembolism prophylaxis, lidocaine toxicity, surgical infection prevention, fat embolism syndrome). Note: This question bank is an English-language study adaptation designed to master core concepts, classifications, surgical techniques, and SBCP guidelines while retaining all official Portuguese medical-legal terms inline.

Assessment

Exame de Suficiência run by the Sociedade Brasileira de Cirurgia Plástica with the AMB, administered by the Instituto CPA under Edital nº 1198 for the 2026 edition. The examination is sat over two consecutive days at a single venue in São Paulo and combines a Prova Teórica — issued in two versions, Tipo 1 and Tipo 2 — with a Prova Prática for which qualifying candidates are separately convoked. MCQ study can prepare the safety, sequencing, planning and complication-recognition knowledge behind the practical stage, but cannot certify operative skill.

Time Limit

Two consecutive examination days

Passing Score

Set by each edition's edital

Exam Fee

Set annually by the society's edital and varies with society/AMB membership status; consult the current edital before budgeting (Sociedade Brasileira de Cirurgia Plástica (SBCP) — Associação Médica Brasileira (AMB))

Título de Especialista em Cirurgia Plástica (SBCP / AMB) Exam Content Outline

15%

Cicatrização, Enxertos, Retalhos Cutâneos e Microcirurgia

Biologia da cicatrização tecidual, fases inflamatória/proliferativa/remodelamento, síntese e maturação do colágeno (Tipos I e III), queloides e cicatrizes hipertróficas, enxertos cutâneos de espessura parcial e total, fases de integração (embebição plasmática, inosculação, revascularização), retalhos axiais e ao acaso, classificação de Mathes-Nahai para retalhos musculares, retalhos perfurantes (DIEP, ALT, anterolateral da coxa) e princípios fundamentais de anastomoses microvasculares.

10%

Queimaduras Agudas e Reconstrução de Sequelas

Fisiopatologia do trauma térmico sistêmico e local, zonas de Jackson (coagulação, estase, hiperemia), estimativa de SCQ (Regra dos Nove de Wallace e tabela de Lund-Browder), reposição volêmica com Ringer Lactato (fórmulas de Parkland e Brooke modificada), critérios diagnósticos de lesão inalatória e indicação de via aérea definitiva, escarotomias torácicas e de extremidades, queimaduras elétricas e químicas, liberação de contraturas com Z-plastias e úlcera de Marjolin.

10%

Tumores Cutâneos e Reconstrução Oncológica

Diagnóstico clínico, dermatoscópico e histopatológico do Carcinoma Basocelular (CBC nodular, esclerodermiforme, superficial), Carcinoma Espinocelular (CEC) e Melanoma Cutâneo. Margens de ressecção oncológica baseadas no índice de Breslow (in situ = 0,5 cm; ≤ 1,0 mm = 1,0 cm; 1,01-2,0 mm = 1-2 cm; > 2,0 mm = 2,0 cm), indicações de linfonodo sentinela, e retalhos reconstrutivos faciais específicos (paramediano frontal, Karapandzic, Abbé, Estlander, bilobado e Mustardé de bochecha).

15%

Cirurgia Craniomaxilofacial e Deformidades Congênitas

Embriologia e anatomia cirúrgica das fissuras labiopalatinas, queiloplastia unilateral (técnica de Millard por rotação-avanço) e bilateral, palatoplastia (von Langenbeck, Furlow duplo Z-plastia), insuficiência velofaríngea e faringoplastias, craniossinostoses isoladas e sindrômicas (Apert, Crouzon), fraturas de face (Le Fort I, II e III, fraturas do complexo zigomático-maxilar e assoalho orbitário) e linhas de Champy para fixação interna rígida mandibular.

12%

Reconstrução Mamária e Cirurgia Reparadora do Tronco

Técnicas de reconstrução mamária pós-mastectomia imediata e tardia: expansores teciduais com implantes definitivos, matrizes dérmicas acelulares (ADM), retalho miocutâneo de reto abdominal (TRAM pediculado vs microcirúrgico e zonas de Hartrampf), retalho perfurante da artéria epigástrica inferior profunda (DIEP), retalho de grande dorsal associado ou não a prótese, reconstrução do complexo aréolo-papilar (CAP) e princípios de cirurgia oncoplástica.

12%

Cirurgia da Mão e Membros

Anatomia funcional e cirúrgica da mão, zonas de Verdan de lesão dos tendões flexores (ênfase na Zona II de Kleinert - 'terra de ninguém'), técnicas de tenorrafia (Kessler, Tsuge) e protocolos de reabilitação precoce, lesões de tendões extensores (boutonnière, mallet finger), neuropatias compressivas (síndrome do túnel do carpo e canal de Guyon), lesões de nervos periféricos (Seddon e Sunderland), fraturas dos metacarpianos e falanges (fraturas de Bennett e Rolando), moléstia de Dupuytren e reconstrução do membro inferior por terços anatômicos.

12%

Cirurgia Estética Facial

Rinoplastia estética e funcional aberta e fechada, conceitos de rinoplastia estruturada, enxertos cartilaginosos estruturais (spreader grafts, columellar strut, lateral crural strut graft), tratamento da válvula nasal interna e externa; blefaroplastia superior e inferior (tratamento de bolsas adiposas, cantopexia/cantoplastia, reposicionamento de gordura, correção de ptose); ritidoplastia e cervicoplastia (dissecção do SMAS, deep plane facelift, ligamentos retentores da face, identificação e proteção dos ramos do nervo facial); e otoplastia (técnicas de Mustardé para antélice e Furnas para concha).

10%

Contorno Corporal e Cirurgia Estética das Mamas

Lipoaspiração tumescente e super-úmida, parâmetros de segurança estipulados pela Resolução CFM nº 1.711/2004 (limite de 7% do peso corporal para técnica infiltrativa e 5% para não-infiltrativa, máximo de 40% de área corporal), abdominoplastia clássica e lipoabdominoplastia (técnica de Saldanha com preservação de fáscia de Scarpa e perfurantes), mamoplastia redutora (pedículos superior, inferior, medial e técnica de Pitanguy), mastopexia com implantes em duplo plano (dual plane), e cirurgia plástica pós-perda ponderal maciça (cruroplastia, braquioplastia, body lift).

Segurança Cirúrgica, Anestesia e Complicações

Avaliação perioperatória e estratificação de risco de Tromboembolismo Venoso (TEV) pelo escore de Caprini com indicação de heparina de baixo peso molecular (HBPM) e profilaxia mecânica; reconhecimento imediato e protocolo de Lipid Rescue com emulsão lipídica a 20% na Intoxicação Sistêmica por Anestésicos Locais (LAST); proibição formal de injeção intramuscular profunda na lipoenxertia glútea para prevenção de embolia gordurosa pulmonar; e protocolo diagnóstico e terapêutico para Linfoma Anaplásico de Grandes Células Associado a Implante Mamário (BIA-ALCL).

How to Pass the Título de Especialista em Cirurgia Plástica (SBCP / AMB) Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Set by each edition's edital
Assessment: Exame de Suficiência run by the Sociedade Brasileira de Cirurgia Plástica with the AMB, administered by the Instituto CPA under Edital nº 1198 for the 2026 edition. The examination is sat over two consecutive days at a single venue in São Paulo and combines a Prova Teórica — issued in two versions, Tipo 1 and Tipo 2 — with a Prova Prática for which qualifying candidates are separately convoked. MCQ study can prepare the safety, sequencing, planning and complication-recognition knowledge behind the practical stage, but cannot certify operative skill.
Time limit: Two consecutive examination days
Exam fee: Set annually by the society's edital and varies with society/AMB membership status; consult the current edital before budgeting

Keys to Passing

Work through all 100 available questions
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Frequently Asked Questions

What is the official structure of the Título de Especialista em Cirurgia Plástica (SBCP / AMB) examination?

The Exame de Suficiência is run annually by the SBCP with the AMB and administered by the Instituto CPA — Edital nº 1198 governed the 2026 edition, with registration from 09/12/2025 to 09/01/2026 and the papers sat over two consecutive days at a single venue in São Paulo. Stage 1 is a Prova Teórica, issued in two versions (Tipo 1 and Tipo 2) with separate gabaritos; qualifying candidates are then convoked for the Prova Prática. The SBCP does not publish a standing item count or cut score — both are fixed by the edital for that edition. Our MCQ bank can prepare the safety, planning, sequencing and complication-recognition knowledge behind the practical stage, but cannot certify operative skill.

What are the eligibility requirements to sit for the SBCP specialist examination?

Candidates must hold an active medical license (CRM) in Brazil and have completed a prerequisite 2-year General Surgery residency followed by a 3-year accredited Plastic Surgery residency recognized by MEC/CNRM or the Sociedade Brasileira de Cirurgia Plástica (SBCP). Alternatively, physicians with verified extensive surgical practice meeting the strict requirements published in the official annual Edital may apply under the special category.

What are the key safety limits for liposuction established by the Brazilian Federal Council of Medicine (CFM)?

Under CFM Resolution nº 1.711/2004, the maximum total aspirated volume must not exceed 7% of the patient's total body weight when using the infiltrative (tumescent/super-wet) technique, or 5% of body weight when using the non-infiltrative dry technique. Additionally, the treated area must not exceed 40% of the total body surface area in a single surgical operative session.

Why is gluteal fat grafting strictly prohibited in the deep intramuscular plane under SBCP and international safety guidelines?

Intramuscular injection of autologous fat into the gluteus maximus carries a high risk of inadvertent cannulation or tearing of large high-flow gluteal veins (such as the superior and inferior gluteal veins), which can rapidly transport macroscopic fat emboli directly to the inferior vena cava and pulmonary arterial tree, causing catastrophic, often fatal pulmonary fat embolism. Grafting must be confined strictly to the subcutaneous plane.

What is the recommended resuscitation protocol in acute burns according to SBCP and Brazilian Burn Center standards?

The Parkland formula is standard for the initial 24 hours: 4 mL of Ringer's Lactate × body weight (kg) × % Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) burned (for 2nd and 3rd degree burns). Half of the total calculated volume is administered during the first 8 hours post-burn injury (not from hospital arrival), and the remaining half is infused over the subsequent 16 hours, dynamically adjusted to maintain target urine output (0.5 to 1.0 mL/kg/h in adults).

What are the surgical margin recommendations for cutaneous melanoma based on Breslow tumor thickness?

Standard Brazilian and international oncologic guidelines require: 0.5 cm margin for melanoma in situ; 1.0 cm margin for invasive melanoma with Breslow thickness ≤ 1.0 mm; 1.0 to 2.0 cm margin for Breslow thickness of 1.01 to 2.0 mm; and 2.0 cm radial surgical margins down to deep fascia for tumors with Breslow thickness > 2.0 mm. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is typically indicated starting at T1b (Breslow ≥ 0.8 mm, or < 0.8 mm with ulceration).