270+ Free ARRT Nuclear Medicine Practice Questions

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ARRT Nuclear Medicine Exam

230

Total Questions

ARRT primary handbook (200 scored + 30 pilot)

4h 10m

Appointment Time

ARRT primary handbook (230 minutes testing time)

Passing Scaled Score

ARRT scoring model

$225

Exam Fee

ARRT application-fee schedule (2026)

200

Scored Items

ARRT Nuclear Medicine content specifications

24/25/33/118

Content Distribution

Patient Care/Safety/Image Production/Procedures scored-item counts through January 31, 2027

ARRT's Nuclear Medicine Technology exam contains 230 total items (200 scored + 30 pilot), provides 230 minutes of testing time within a 250-minute appointment, and uses a passing scaled score of 75. The current scored specification through January 31, 2027 contains Patient Care 24, Safety 25, Image Production 33, and Procedures 118 questions.

Sample ARRT Nuclear Medicine Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ARRT Nuclear Medicine exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 270+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A patient scheduled for a nuclear medicine procedure reports an allergy to iodine. Which radiopharmaceutical should be used with caution or avoided?

A.Technetium-99m MDP

B.Iodine-123 sodium iodide

C.Technetium-99m sulfur colloid

D.Gallium-67 citrate

Explanation: Iodine-123 sodium iodide is contraindicated in patients with iodine allergies as it directly contains iodine. While some argue that pharmaceutical-grade iodine in radiopharmaceuticals may not trigger the same reaction as contrast media, standard protocol requires caution and physician consultation. Technetium-99m MDP (bone scan), Tc-99m sulfur colloid (liver/spleen), and Gallium-67 citrate do not contain iodine and are safe alternatives.

2Before administering a radiopharmaceutical to a female patient of childbearing age, what is the most important question to ask?

A.When was your last menstrual period?

B.Do you have any allergies?

C.Have you had any surgery?

D.Are you taking any medications?

Explanation: Determining the possibility of pregnancy is the critical safety step before administering radiopharmaceuticals to women of childbearing age. The 10-day rule (or modified 28-day rule) establishes that non-urgent procedures should be performed within 10 days after the onset of menstruation when pregnancy is least likely. This protects a potential fetus from unnecessary radiation exposure. Allergies, surgical history, and medications are important but secondary to pregnancy status.

3A patient experiencing anaphylaxis after radiopharmaceutical administration requires immediate intervention. What is the FIRST medication that should be administered?

A.Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

B.Epinephrine

C.Hydrocortisone

D.Albuterol

Explanation: Epinephrine is the drug of choice for anaphylaxis and should be administered immediately. It reverses vasodilation, reduces airway edema, and stabilizes mast cells. The standard adult dose is 0.3-0.5 mg of 1:1000 concentration intramuscularly in the anterolateral thigh. While diphenhydramine and corticosteroids are adjunct treatments, they are not first-line. Albuterol may help with bronchospasm but does not address the cardiovascular collapse of anaphylaxis.

4According to the ARRT Code of Ethics, a nuclear medicine technologist may discontinue a procedure when:

A.The patient appears uncomfortable

B.The referring physician is not immediately available

C.Continued administration is deemed to be medically contraindicated

D.The department is running behind schedule

Explanation: The ARRT Code of Ethics states that technologists may discontinue a procedure when continued administration is medically contraindicated, such as when a patient experiences an adverse reaction or a serious safety concern arises. Patient discomfort alone should be managed when possible. The unavailability of the referring physician or scheduling issues are not valid reasons to discontinue a procedure. The technologist must exercise professional judgment to protect patient safety.

5A patient receiving I-131 therapy for thyroid cancer begins vomiting shortly after administration. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

A.Clean up the vomit with standard cleaning supplies

B.Call the physician immediately without entering the room

C.Use appropriate PPE, contain the radioactive material, and follow contamination protocols

D.Document the event and continue with the next patient

Explanation: Vomitus from a patient who has received radioactive iodine is radioactive and requires specific contamination protocols. The technologist must wear appropriate PPE (gloves, gown, shoe covers), use absorbent materials to contain the contamination, and follow institutional procedures for radioactive waste disposal. The area must be surveyed with a radiation detector after cleanup. While the physician should be notified, immediate containment of radioactive material is the priority.

6What is the maximum annual occupational dose limit for the whole body (deep dose equivalent) according to NRC regulations?

A.5 mSv

B.50 mSv

C.150 mSv

D.500 mSv

Explanation: The NRC annual dose limit for occupational whole-body exposure is 50 mSv (5 rem) for the deep dose equivalent (DDE). This is the limit for stochastic effects (cancer risk). For the lens of the eye, the limit is 150 mSv (15 rem), and for the skin and extremities, it is 500 mSv (50 rem). The 5 mSv option is higher than the standard annual dose limit for a member of the general public, which is 1 mSv (0.1 rem) per 10 CFR 20.1301; a licensee may apply for special NRC authorization to use a 5 mSv annual public limit only in defined circumstances.

7Which type of radiation has the highest linear energy transfer (LET) and therefore poses the greatest biological hazard per unit of absorbed dose?

A.Gamma rays

B.Beta particles

C.Alpha particles

D.X-rays

Explanation: Alpha particles have the highest linear energy transfer (LET) because they are large, heavy, doubly-charged particles that deposit energy densely over a short path. They have low penetration (stopped by paper or dead skin layer) but are extremely hazardous if ingested or inhaled. Gamma rays and X-rays are low-LET electromagnetic radiation. Beta particles are medium-LET electrons. The relative biological effectiveness (RBE) of alpha particles is approximately 20 times that of gamma rays.

8What is the required posting for areas where radioactive materials are used and radiation levels could exceed 5 µSv (0.5 mrem) in one hour?

A.Caution: Radioactive Materials

B.Caution: Radiation Area

C.Danger: High Radiation Area

D.No posting required

Explanation: NRC regulations require posting a "Caution: Radiation Area" sign where radiation levels could exceed 5 µSv (0.5 mrem) in any one hour. "Caution: Radioactive Materials" is posted in areas where radioactive materials are used or stored. "Danger: High Radiation Area" is required where dose rates exceed 1 mSv (100 mrem) in one hour. The ALARA principle requires keeping doses As Low As Reasonably Achievable.

9According to the ALARA principle, what is the primary method for reducing occupational radiation exposure during patient imaging?

A.Increasing the distance from the radiation source

B.Using thicker lead aprons

C.Decreasing imaging time

D.Using lower activity doses

Explanation: The ALARA principle (As Low As Reasonably Achievable) emphasizes time, distance, and shielding. Distance is the most effective factor because exposure follows the inverse square law (doubling distance reduces exposure to one-fourth). While shielding and time are important, maximizing distance from the patient (who becomes a radiation source after administration) provides the greatest protection for technologists. Lower activity doses must balance image quality with radiation safety.

10What is the half-value layer (HVL) of lead for Technetium-99m?

A.0.03 mm

B.0.3 mm

C.3.0 mm

D.30 mm

Explanation: The half-value layer (HVL) for Tc-99m in lead is approximately 0.3 mm (0.027 cm). This means 0.3 mm of lead will attenuate half of the 140 keV gamma rays emitted by Tc-99m. This is why standard lead aprons (0.25-0.5 mm lead equivalent) provide effective protection for Tc-99m procedures. Higher energy radionuclides like I-131 (364 keV) require more shielding with an HVL of approximately 3 mm of lead.

About the ARRT Nuclear Medicine Exam

ARRT Nuclear Medicine Technology is a primary-pathway credential for graduates of ARRT-verified NMT programs who prepare and administer radiopharmaceuticals, operate gamma cameras and PET/CT systems, perform quality control, and ensure radiation safety.

Questions

230 scored questions

Time Limit

230 minutes testing time within a 250-minute appointment

Passing Score

Scaled score 75

Exam Fee

$225 (ARRT)

ARRT Nuclear Medicine Exam Content Outline

24 scored (12%)

Patient Care

Patient assessment, preparation, education, venipuncture, contraindications, adverse reactions, legal/ethical considerations

25 scored (12.5%)

Safety

Radiation physics, biological effects, radiation protection, ALARA, NRC regulations, dose limits, monitoring, shielding

33 scored (16.5%)

Image Production

Gamma cameras, SPECT, PET/CT, CT components, quality control, image processing, display, PACS

118 scored (59%)

Procedures

Radionuclide production, generator elution, radiopharmaceutical preparation/quality control, administration, and clinical imaging procedures

How to Pass the ARRT Nuclear Medicine Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Scaled score 75
Exam length: 230 questions
Time limit: 230 minutes testing time within a 250-minute appointment
Exam fee: $225

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ARRT Nuclear Medicine Study Tips from Top Performers

1Focus heavily on Procedures (118 of 200 scored items), especially radiopharmacy calculations, generator elution, quality control, and clinical applications

2Master radiation physics concepts including half-life calculations, decay equations, and radiation protection principles

3Know NRC regulations including dose limits, posting requirements, and medical event reporting

4Understand PET/CT principles including coincidence detection, attenuation correction, and CTAC artifacts

5Practice radiopharmaceutical chemistry including reducing agents, quality control testing (TLC), and breakthrough testing

6Review cardiac imaging thoroughly including reversible vs fixed defects, coronary artery anatomy, and pharmacologic stress protocols

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are on the ARRT Nuclear Medicine exam?

ARRT's Nuclear Medicine Technology exam contains 230 total questions: 200 scored items and 30 pilot (unscored) items.

How long is the ARRT Nuclear Medicine exam appointment?

ARRT provides 230 minutes of Nuclear Medicine testing time within a 250-minute appointment.

What score do I need to pass ARRT Nuclear Medicine?

ARRT reports a passing scaled score of 75 for Nuclear Medicine Technology.

What are the ARRT Nuclear Medicine content weights?

Through January 31, 2027, ARRT assigns 24 scored items to Patient Care, 25 to Safety, 33 to Image Production, and 118 to Procedures.

How much is the ARRT Nuclear Medicine exam fee?

ARRT's 2026 application-fee schedule lists Nuclear Medicine Technology at $225.

What radionuclides should I focus on for the exam?

Focus on Technetium-99m (most common), Iodine-131 and I-123 (thyroid), Thallium-201 and Tc-99m sestamibi (cardiac), F-18 FDG (PET), Ga-67 and In-111 (tumor/infection), and Xe-133/Tc-99m DTPA (lung ventilation).

270+ Free ARRT Nuclear Medicine Practice Questions

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